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Are the etymologies 1 and 3 really different, or should we just move the contents of 3 into 1? --Hekaheka (talk) 05:39, 19 June 2012 (UTC)
This isn't really an RFV issue, unless you have doubts about whether the senses in Etymology 3 are in actual use. Tea Room, maybe? or Etymology Scriptorium?
As to substance: From a synchronic view, merging makes perfect sense- the two are semantically two sides of the same coin. Inconveniently, Etymologies are inherently diachronic- it boils down to the actual history of the two.
It's an interesting philosophical question: did the verb descend directly from the Old English verb, separately from the noun's descent from the OE noun, or did both form a complex of complementary forms that descended to what we have today? The connection between the two would have been as obvious then as it is now. I do tend to otiosecapillarybifurcation, at times, though... Chuck Entz (talk) 06:13, 19 June 2012 (UTC)
When I treat etymologies, that is precisely what I look for: whether a pos is a direct descendant of an earlier word, or whether it is derived, either in Modern/Middle English, from the other. Century, which is a good source (where others may coalesce for space-saving) shows individual etymologies for the noun and the verb. Leasnam (talk) 14:57, 19 June 2012 (UTC)
I do, however, feel it should be moved closer to the related word (Etyl_3 closer to Etyl_1). Leasnam (talk) 14:59, 19 June 2012 (UTC)
It also seems likely to me that the wrestling verb sense is in fact a direct conversion of the wrestling noun sense. The actual facts of diachronic derivation within language communities seem messier than what we would want to present. DCDuringTALK 15:12, 19 June 2012 (UTC)
I would agree with you there. Breaking up into a main Verb (all encompassing) and Noun (all encompassing) is usually the extent to which I go. If further breakdown is needed, it can be written into the Etymology to explain the various sense derivations. Leasnam (talk) 15:21, 19 June 2012 (UTC)