Talk:markhor

Etymology

• From user talk page:

Can you help with the Middle Persian source of this one? I don't really know the Pahlavi scripts very well. Ƿidsiþ 08:23, 18 October 2008 (UTC)

• Thanks! Although.. Why do you think it came into English from Urdu/Hindi? The OED says Persian, and the earliest citations are from Persian travellers which seems to support the idea. The OED etymology has a long-a (mārķwār), which is why I used alif, but since I don't know any Persian myself I guess that could be wrong. Ƿidsiþ 09:57, 18 October 2008 (UTC)

Hi! I'm sorry...I was up very late last night researching this word and came up quite disappointed. I'm basing the fact that it comes via Hindustani (Urdu and Hindi) due to the pronunciation of the word in English, which follows Hindustani pronunciation and resembles it very closely (especially on the "khor" part) and on the quotation given, which definitely gives it away. Ultimately, yes, it comes from Persian. As far as I know the word for to eat is خوردن (khordan) (without the alif) and even if it did have the alif, in such cases, where a present participle is the second part of a word, it would be dropped. --Dijan 04:33, 19 October 2008 (UTC)

• OK, I'll copy this to the talk page. Ƿidsiþ 09:23, 27 October 2008 (UTC)