Proto-Indo-European

Fragment of a discussion from User talk:CodeCat
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That depends on the language. Aside from languages that preserve the accent placement itself, there are also languages that preserve indirect traces of the accent. Verner's Law in Germanic is a good example of that.

CodeCat01:53, 3 February 2013

Ok. Do you have any idea how PIE *méme ~ moy reflexed into PG *mīnaz?

Jackwolfroven (talk)02:40, 3 February 2013

I don't think they did. *mīnaz probably goes back to an earlier *meynos, but I don't know where that came from.

CodeCat02:55, 3 February 2013
Edited by another user.
Last edit: 15:22, 31 August 2013

It could be related to the *-nos in *(h)óy(h)nos, and then the *mey- would be an e-grade of the PIE *moy. But I don't know how the *-nos suffix works, and it seems to be in free variation with *-kos and *-wos. Is it a known suffix?

Jackwolfroven (talk)03:18, 3 February 2013

As far as I know *-nos forms adjectives from verbal roots, but I'm not aware of any other use.

CodeCat03:22, 3 February 2013

Could *éy- have been a verbal root besides a pronoun?

Jackwolfroven (talk)03:29, 3 February 2013

Why do you think that?

CodeCat04:04, 3 February 2013

Since in the etymology for *óynos it says, "Perhaps built on the pronominal stem *h₁ey- 'he, she, it'."

Jackwolfroven (talk)04:19, 3 February 2013