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Why are there (r)'s in the pronunciations? I've heard that when some non-rhotic dialects becoming rhotic put a /r/'s to places where it's not written (such as /ˈaɪdiɚ/ for idea in modern New York dialect) but it's considered absolutely non-standard. Are there any other reasons? Ferike333 08:17, 24 April 2010 (UTC)

It's certainly standard on Wiktionary to write UK pronunciations in this way, as there are a variety of similar accents that differ primarily in rhoticity. Where someone speaking a non-rhotic UK English accent says /ˈpə.nɪns.jə.lə(ɹ)/, someone with a rhotic accent would say /ˈpə.nɪns.jə.ləɹ/. Also, /əɹ/ is not the same as /ɚ/, the latter is not a phoneme found in standard British English speech. Does that answer you question or have I missed the point? Thryduulf 08:42, 24 April 2010 (UTC)