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sense = menos [1]

It this valid here?--John Bessa 18:00, 15 July 2010 (UTC)

In the translation table for sense? No, we don't include reconstructed languages. In the etymlogy section for sense? Only if sense derived from it.​—msh210 (talk) 18:06, 15 July 2010 (UTC)
I am planning to create a map of the evolution of "sense," that I want to somehow "mash" with the evolutionary mapping for neurological "sense." And if I can do that, I will approach the evolution of sense as part of thought, which may (I hope) include evidence of the evolution of morality. While doing that, I may find non-reconstructed roots for sense. If so, you will be the first to know!--John Bessa 13:54, 21 August 2010 (UTC)
   Ah, "mash", presumably a backformation from ... mashup#Noun, sense 2..... Hmmm. How...... ...uh.... .....hmmm. (Does this post by me offend Wikt policy and custom??)
--Jerzyt 05:23, 27 June 2017 (UTC)

Quotes for first definition[edit]

The Shakespeare and Milton quotes seem superfluous. More importantly, without more context, the actual usage of the word they are meant to illustrate is unclear. They could be using it for either 'sense as related to perception' or 'sense as related to comprehension.' The distinction is a significant one, so I think this should probably be addressed, whether through expanding them to provide context, replacing them with new sentences, or simply removing them entirely. Kludgel (talk) 08:40, 27 April 2016 (UTC)