Talk:Englands

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Latest comment: 2 years ago by 70.172.194.25 in topic Plural
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Plural

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This isn't really a thing, just a literary or rhetorical device ("There are two Englands: that occupied by the rich and that filled by the poor") that applies equally well to Irelands, Spains, Japans, etc. It would be one thing if we were limiting the countable sense to the uncommon surname or to countries with a legitimate history of contested existence (Chinas, Germanies, Koreas, etc.) but that doesn't seem to be what's going on here (see also France) — LlywelynII 01:50, 1 February 2022 (UTC)Reply

If we want to document "all words in all languages", and such plural forms can be sufficiently attested, why should we not include them? Of course, the lemma entry should still say "usually uncountable", as is the case with England. 70.172.194.25 01:54, 1 February 2022 (UTC)Reply