Talk:funda

Latin: whence the thous?

(deprecated template usage) fundā

1. second-person singular present active imperative of fundō

Aside from the fact that I have no idea how this works, and why the definition is somehow stored somewhere else and not on this page... why "thou"?

I know Latin is a dead language from long ago - though much older than middle English, I'm fairly sure - and I suspect this may have to do with the King James bible, but neither of those things sound like a good reason to use middle English personal pronouns in a dictionary definition. If there is a good reason for this that eludes me, could someone please elucidate it?

(If I'm right to suspect a conflation of Latin and the King James bible, then that's an implication I don't like at all. The bible does not have a monopoly on Latin, thank you very much. It's just one of many works written in that language, plenty of which also have modern translations, without any sections of their fanbase insisting that the medieval one is the One True Translation.) - Fyrius (talk) 16:52, 29 August 2012 (UTC)

Thou is always singular, I guess. Mglovesfun (talk) 17:00, 29 August 2012 (UTC)