Talk:հարսն

Semitic

@Vahagn Petrosyan: I am suspicious of a PIE etymology for such a word. Proto-Germanic *brūdiz isn’t of known origin either. Proto-Slavic *nevěsta is a transparent new formation. The true Indo-Europeans probably held the principle consensus facit nuptias so that marriage (mātrimōnium) was not legally formalized (notwithstanding the manus power a husband could acquire, this is separate of marriage under Roman law) so that such a thing as a “bride” as we might imagine could not exist (again different of Turkic practices, → gəlin, just to compare). Marriage as we know it is a Semitic borrowing, spread in Europe via the Semitic religion Christianity. And when Armenian literature becomes apparent it is already Christian. You see where I am going with this: I rather compare derivations from the root ع ر س (ʕ-r-s) (having various derivations in Aramaic and Akkadian). As is well known the later Aramaic gets the oftener the voiced pharyngeal fricative is confused with the unvoiced pharyngeal fricative and the unvoiced glottal fricative. But admittedly I know nothing about old marriage practices in Armenia. Fay Freak (talk) 19:11, 1 July 2020 (UTC)

@Fay Freak: This is unnecessary. The word has an easy explanation as ‘a requested female’. I don't know about ancient practices, but to this day in Armenia the groom and his family go the bride's family to request (ուզել (uzel), խնդրել (xndrel)) her hand. --Vahag (talk) 06:21, 2 July 2020 (UTC)