Talk:וריד

Borrowed from Arabic?

As far as I can tell, the current source does not claim that. 70.172.194.25 23:17, 26 March 2022 (UTC)

No, if you have not seen it yet, Wiktionarians also have own discernments, deducing them by linguistic methods from the available material. One instead claims a borrowing from the Akkadian listed at the Arabic page which does not fit formally nor semantically, or affirms ignorance. You know that natively in Northwest Semitic a first radical /w/ becomes /y/ (bar some obscure exceptions)? Hence it is necessarily a borrowing, and only Arabic is left as a source, where it has a native derivation, even though the Hebrew and Syriac are known to have been used in pre-Islamic times: there was some contact with Arabs in the 6th century, not every Arab was a Bedouin, and here we think about the particularisms of physicians. Surely this field needs investigation but the hypothesis (in etymologies of ancient languages often formulated as if a fact in order not to overcomplicate things) is the best we have. Fay Freak (talk) 00:08, 27 March 2022 (UTC)

Fair enough. 70.172.194.25 00:49, 27 March 2022 (UTC)