Talk:acetabulae

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Latest comment: 14 years ago by Doremítzwr
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On what basis is this form of the plural classified as NONSTANDARD?211.225.37.47 23:05, 10 September 2009 (UTC)Reply

Because it’s a “double plural”. It derives from a neuter noun of the Latin second declension ending in (deprecated template usage) -um, whose etymologically-consistent plural form terminates in (deprecated template usage) -a (as acetabula). If it derived from a feminine first-declension Latin noun like *(deprecated template usage) acetabula, then the etymologically-consistent plural would indeed be *(deprecated template usage) acetabulae. Make sense?  (u):Raifʻhār (t):Doremítzwr﴿ 23:13, 10 September 2009 (UTC)Reply