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Why is “!?” more correct than “?!” — the latter seems more correct unto me. † Raifʻhār Doremítzwr 15:06, 23 January 2007 (UTC)

Anybody know? 12:12, 26 January 2009 (UTC)
I've taken the definition out unless anybody can provide a reference for why this is more "correct". Both can be used depending on the circumstances, as well as longer combinations like?!?!? In any case, simply saying "this is the correct order" isn't actually a definition - the entry needs to say what !? actually means, if it even has a definable meaning. 12:50, 31 July 2010 (UTC)
Yeah it was tosh. Mglovesfun (talk) 13:08, 31 July 2010 (UTC)
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Rfd-redundant: Russian definition is the same as the Translingual one. I thought the whole point of Translingual was to avoid repeating the definitions for individual languages when they are all the same. Mglovesfun (talk) 16:13, 28 May 2011 (UTC)

I would disagree in general because some terms could be used in several languages, thus being considered translingual, but not in others. Quotation marks are an example. Here, however, the language seems to be chess more than anything else. I'm not convinced this is Russian any more than it's English. DAVilla 15:13, 2 June 2011 (UTC)
My point above was only in relation to this entry, not Wiktionary entries in general. --Mglovesfun (talk) 15:18, 2 June 2011 (UTC)
Delete. —Internoob (DiscCont) 02:38, 5 June 2011 (UTC)
Speedy delete. Is it really likely Russian speakers reserve this digraph only for chess? The chances are quite low. --Pilcrow 07:21, 6 June 2011 (UTC)

deleted -- Liliana 15:07, 19 July 2011 (UTC)