Talk:Teutonic

Definition #3

Is sense 3 really obsolete? I would say that it is at most dated, and at a big stretch possibly archaic. Leasnam 20:39, 1 June 2010 (UTC)

I've spent about 20 minutes looking at bgc hits for the exact phrase Teutonic language, and while there are 640+ books published post 2000 containing the search term most appear to be reprints of late 19th Century works. [1] appears to be an exception, apparently first published in 2008. Pending investigation into uses that are not of the precise phrase, I'd certainly be tempted mark it "mostly archaic". However, Google Groups hits tell a slightly different story, with plenty of hits up to at least 1998 [2], [3], [4], [5], on which evidence alone I would say dated. Given the combination of the two, it might be better to write a usage note to say that it is mostly archaic in formal works, but it has lasted much longer (around a century!) in informal settings. Further investigation is definately warranted though. Thryduulf (talk) 22:36, 1 June 2010 (UTC)