Talk:nadie

I think the example sentence "No sabe nadie que su hermano es gay" is incorrect. If I'm not wrong, the use of "nadie" plus a finite verb to discuss something that applies to nobody requires that the finite verb be in the subjunctive mood, not the indicative. Thus, I think the sentence should read "No sepa nadie que su hermano es gay". Can anyone confirm or deny this for me? Cenabis bene, mi Fabulle, apud me 17:36, 10 January 2012 (UTC)

Searching google for "no sabe nadie" gets more hits than "no sepa nadie", which seems to always be in the context "que no sepa nadie". ~Random facts — [Ric Laurent] — 18:06, 10 January 2012 (UTC)

I think an answer relating to the linguistic background of the use of the subjunctive might be a little more helpful. Cenabis bene, mi Fabulle, apud me 21:11, 10 January 2012 (UTC)

I have no formal training in Spanish, so obviously I can't say for sure. But it would strike me as highly unusual if a pronoun should require the subjunctive with it in main clauses. If (!) a subjunctive were required at all, I would expect it in the subclause. Thus possibly: "No sabe nadie que su hermano sea gay." 178.4.151.244 22:36, 19 May 2023 (UTC)