User talk:Osmòtic

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Why would Catalan cent not be from Old Occitan cent when the language itself is? SURJECTION ·talk·contr·log· 09:31, 7 October 2018 (UTC)[reply]

It is not.--Osmòtic (talk) 10:18, 8 October 2018 (UTC)[reply]

With what justification? Category:Catalan language says Old Occitan is an ancestor language. SURJECTION ·talk·contr·log· 10:35, 8 October 2018 (UTC)[reply]

https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Catalan_language --Osmòtic (talk) 11:12, 8 October 2018 (UTC)[reply]

The link states that Old Catalan is the early form, and Old Catalan in turn split off from Old Occitan, as its article states: "Old Catalan diverged from Old Occitan between the 11th and 14th centuries.". SURJECTION ·talk·contr·log· 11:14, 8 October 2018 (UTC)[reply]

"Diverged from" doesn't mean "descended of". "By the 9th century, Catalan had evolved from Vulgar Latin", says the link.--Osmòtic (talk) 12:08, 8 October 2018 (UTC)[reply]

Why would it be pointed out if it weren't descended from it? Yes, Catalan evolved from Vulgar Latin, but through the intermediate languages (somewhat loosely defined in this case) of Vulgar Latin -> Old Occitan -> Old Catalan -> modern Catalan. SURJECTION ·talk·contr·log· 12:11, 8 October 2018 (UTC)[reply]
Whatever the case is, as long as Category:Catalan language states Old Occitan as an ancestor, centum should be no different. If you want to argue against the existing classification, use the Beer Parlour. SURJECTION ·talk·contr·log· 12:14, 8 October 2018 (UTC)[reply]