Talk:pæninsulae

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RFV discussion: April 2011–January 2012

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¶ Why would somebody not use æ twice here? --Pilcrow 20:29, 8 April 2011 (UTC)Reply

Well, the two possible <æ>'s seem qualitatively different, at least from a U.S. POV, in that the former replaces <e> and the latter replaces <ae> or (frankly) <as>. (That's only intended to address your question why somebody would. It's not intended to imply that anybody does, which is obviously the more important question.) —RuakhTALK 21:05, 8 April 2011 (UTC)Reply
Attestable as Latin. Not as English, though. -- Prince Kassad 21:08, 8 April 2011 (UTC)Reply

¶ Since it is clearly inconsistent with the principle of using æ for Latin words, it is highly unlikely this spelling exists in print. Daniel likely creäted this out of error, so I should have just asked him if he could delete it instead; I think Mglovesfun believes I am not intelligent. --Pilcrow 21:37, 8 April 2011 (UTC)Reply

"Clearly inconsistent" isn't a reason to speedy-delete an entry. Not really sure what your comment above means; but let's leave that out of the rfv discussion, eh? Use my talk page, or yours. Mglovesfun (talk) 16:26, 10 April 2011 (UTC)Reply
¶ Since you think this entry is not “patently wrong” or invalid (otherwise you would have deleted it), may I ask if you could attest usage of this spelling? --Pilcrow 12:33, 11 April 2011 (UTC)Reply
I don't plan on trying. --Mglovesfun (talk) 16:27, 11 April 2011 (UTC)Reply
Pæninsulæ and pæninsulas aren't attested either (in places I've looked, anyway) so no plural form is attested. Mglovesfun (talk) 22:44, 13 April 2011 (UTC)Reply
Deleted. - -sche (discuss) 22:30, 29 January 2012 (UTC)Reply