RFD (redundancy) discussion
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It should not be re-entered without careful consideration.
Clearly a nonce word. April Regina 16:11, 31 March 2009 (UTC)
- I think we need to take a no-nonce-sense approach. Is the DSM portion (now a separate sense) a copyvio as written? Is the DSM sense appropriate for this UK spelling? In the US, pedophilia also commonly refers to overt sexual acts, not just feelings. Is something similar true for this spelling? DCDuring TALK 17:23, 31 March 2009 (UTC)
Merged two definitions. The discussion above was mostly humorous. --Jackofclubs 13:05, 16 June 2009 (UTC)
Given that the earliest citation for the Latin paedophilia we have is dated 2007, it would be understandable for one to consider it very doubtful that drawing any conclusions about a specific language of origin for the term were possible. Be that as it may, the cited source in question (Periodica de re canonica: Indices tertiae seriei (1982–2005)) indexes the journal of canon law Periodica de re canonica; and the excerpts quoted all refer to one specific article, namely:
- 2002, Giuseppe Versaldi, “Aspetti psicologici degli abusi sessuali perpetrati da chierici” [Latinè: “Abusus sexuales clericorum: Aspectus psychologici”; Anglicè: “Psychological aspects of the sexual abuses committed by clerics”] in Periodica de re canonica, volume XCI, № 1, pages 49–61
Because that article is written in Italian, I therefore conclude that the immediate etymon of the Latin paedophilia is the Italian pedofilia (though, of course, cognate terms is numerous other languages no doubt had a part to play in the Latin term's adoption). — I.S.M.E.T.A. 01:14, 5 May 2015 (UTC)