It's interesting that that dative-"to be" construct for "to have" is also used in Finnish and Hungarian, and therefore most likely in Proto-Uralic as well.
Also, do you know if the presence of the PIE accent on a given symbol directly affects its reflexes? For example, if the first person plural pronoun was **wey rather than *wéy, would there be any difference in the derivatives?
That depends on the language. Aside from languages that preserve the accent placement itself, there are also languages that preserve indirect traces of the accent. Verner's Law in Germanic is a good example of that.
I don't think they did. *mīnaz probably goes back to an earlier *meynos, but I don't know where that came from.
Last edit: 22:18, 28 May 2014
As far as I know *-nos forms adjectives from verbal roots, but I'm not aware of any other use.
Could *éy- have been a verbal root besides a pronoun?