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For "Habēsne epistolas? - Have you got the letters?" isn't "have got" using the British past participle of "get"? "Have you got" isn't present. Habēs is. The only reason I didn't change it to "Do you have the letters?" is because it would be the same as the example for the dative of possession. Speaking of the dative of possession, does an explanation of it really belong in a dictionary entry for habeō? --Jescvs 14:56, 15 December 2011 (UTC)

I just changed it to 'do you have', though have got is standard British English for 'to possess'. Mglovesfun (talk) 14:59, 15 December 2011 (UTC)
Yeah, I know that. It's just that it's technically perfect tense (hence the "have"), unlike habēo/habēs. Thanks for the edit, by the way. --Jescvs 22:43, 15 December 2011 (UTC)


H-dropping in Classical Latin? Wasn’t it a Vulgar Latin phenonemon? — Ungoliant (Falai) 23:13, 23 September 2013 (UTC)