Talk:korephilia

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With reference to this reversion, who said it's a pedophilia? Pedophilia and especially paraphilia are clinical terms ("Paraphilia" isn't usually (mis-)used colloquially) with specific diagnostic criteria. There's nothing in the DSM-5 about korephilia. I would say that it's a kind of pedosexuality, if anything. Leucosticte (talk) 20:55, 15 January 2014 (UTC)[reply]

Sexual orientation vs. paraphilia[edit]

With reference to this revert: are sexual orientation and paraphilia mutually exclusive? Was homosexuality, for instance, considered a sexual orientation at the same time that it was considered a paraphilia, back in the days of the DSM-II? Leucosticte (talk) 15:30, 7 February 2014 (UTC)[reply]

I may be wrong, but I think that the term "sexual orientation" was created specifically to describe homosexuality vs heterosexuality. My guess is that it would have been seen that way before it officially stopped being a paraphilia, but I don't know when the first use of "sexual orientation" was. --WikiTiki89 15:38, 7 February 2014 (UTC)[reply]
sexual orientation, n.
Originally: (the process of) orientation with respect to a sexual goal, potential mate, partner, etc. Later chiefly: a person's sexual identity in relation to the gender to whom he or she is usually attracted; (broadly) the fact of being heterosexual, bisexual, or homosexual.In early use prob. not a fixed collocation.
1931 J. P. Lichtenberger Divorce xv. 369 Courtship..is a normal, but in the absence of sex knowledge often a bungling process of sexual orientation.
1946 G. H. Seward Sex & Social Order xi. 153 Deviant sexual orientation in later life may originate in the child's inability to identify himself with his like-sexed parent.
1953 Amer. Q. 5 340, I was dealing with..psychoanalytic characterologies which are based on sexual orientation—Freud's oral, anal and genital types.
1967 N.Y. Times Mag. 3 Dec. 32/2 He calls for research on how homosexuals become homosexuals... We must research why heterosexuals become heterosexuals—or rather, what forces determine sexual orientation in general.
Sexual preference is not in OED.
sexual inversion n. Psychiatry and Psychol. (now disused) a theory according to which homosexuality is the result of abnormally close identification in early life with role models of the opposite sex; the process described by this theory; (also more narrowly) homosexuality regarded as a pathology or perversion: see inversion n. 11.
1883 A. M. Hamilton Man. Med. Jurispr. iii. 185 A great many arrests have been made..of men dressed in women's clothes who were engaged in soliciting for a purpose too vile to mention. This sexual inversion has been described by several German writers.
1897 H. Ellis Stud. Psychol. Sex I. ii. 27 It seems to have been in Italy that the convenient term ‘sexual inversion’ was first used.
1901 J. A. Godfrey Sci. Sex v. 206 Sexual inversion—that is, the turning-in of the sex instinct towards individuals of the same sex—is an abnormal phenomenon.
1958 Amer. Jrnl. Orthopsychiatry 28 424 Many workers fail to distinguish between homosexuality and sexual inversion, or more accurately, sex-role inversion. Freud..himself..equated the two terms.
I would call this a cretial orientation.
Lysdexia (talk) 06:12, 10 August 2014 (UTC)[reply]

RFV discussion: January–July 2014[edit]

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I think there are some special considerations for -philia and -phobia entries, so I'm submitting this here. —CodeCat 19:37, 15 January 2014 (UTC)[reply]

Special considerations? They have to be cited same as anything else, don't they? I found a grand total of 4 hits on Google Books, some of which suggest that korephilia is specifically the attraction of adult women to underage/prepubescent girls: [1], [2], [3], [4]. —Aɴɢʀ (talk) 19:48, 15 January 2014 (UTC)[reply]
In the past, I think a lot of people expressed concern with phobias that had words invented for them for the sake of it? —CodeCat 19:53, 15 January 2014 (UTC)[reply]
Like sesquipedaliophobia? --WikiTiki89 19:58, 15 January 2014 (UTC)[reply]
Note that the entry currently lists three senses; if there are only 4 BGC hits, then it looks like some of the senses need to be removed / combined. - -sche (discuss) 21:17, 7 February 2014 (UTC)[reply]

Please see Citations:korephilia, which now has five citations. Of those, the actual text of one (1983) is unavailable (which presumably makes it invalid for now), one comprises two quotations – one using the term and the other mentioning it (1993), one merely mentions the term (1996), and the other two use the term (2007, 2008); that makes three legitimate citations, AFAICT. From the evidence they present, I think it is right that we infer that korephilia is specifically a paedophiliac lesbian sexual attraction/orientation. The 1996 citation exhibits the same act/inclination conflation found with paedophilia. If more quotations are needed, the 1983 source would provide one, and the term was probably used in the Paedophile Information Exchange's 1978 publication Paedophilia: Some Questions Answered (as suggested by endnote 44 to chapter 8 in Sexual Citizenship, cited as the 1993 source). — I.S.M.E.T.A. 04:32, 8 February 2014 (UTC)[reply]

I found two more quotations on Usenet, so I've added them, too. I removed the three definitions that were in the entry, and redefined the word as:

  • (rare) Erotic attraction of a woman or older female toward young (chiefly pre- and/or peripubescent) girls; lesbian pederasty.

Does that seem alright to everyone? — I.S.M.E.T.A. 17:01, 8 February 2014 (UTC)[reply]

Shouldn't it be "lesbian pedophilia" instead of "lesbian pederasty"? Pedophilia is about attraction; pederasty is about an act. —Aɴɢʀ (talk) 17:20, 8 February 2014 (UTC)[reply]
I don't think it should: the sources (1991, 2007, 2008) tend to present korephilia as pederasty's feminine equivalent, and the 2008 source even suggests that korephilia mirrors pederasty's "institutional" character. Pederasty isn't an act, as such (see w:Pederasty); you may be thinking of pedication. — I.S.M.E.T.A. 19:39, 8 February 2014 (UTC)[reply]
That page defines pederasty as a homosexual relationship (...), which involves acts; mere attraction does not create a relationship.--Prosfilaes (talk) 20:26, 8 February 2014 (UTC)[reply]
That's incorrect, IMO; according to that definition, it can be said of a pederastic couple "they started their pederasty [i.e., their pederastic relationship] two years ago", which usage sounds just plain wrong to my ears. — I.S.M.E.T.A. 21:47, 8 February 2014 (UTC)[reply]
Passed. — Ungoliant (falai) 17:21, 6 July 2014 (UTC)[reply]


Etymology[edit]

Is there actually any basis in the etymology for saying that this word shall only describe a characteristic of adult women? I can't see anything in the etymology to support that definition; rather it seems etymologically to narrow "paedophilia" to attraction of an adult of any gender toward girls.