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@AryamanA Why Hapš?? -- माधवपंडित (talk) 01:47, 22 December 2017 (UTC)

@माधवपंडित: I don't know, User:Victar moved it. @Victar How does *Hā́pš work exactly... And surely Proto-Iranian *Hā́fš shouldn't have *f, most of the descendants have -b or -p endings? I'm not trying to sound confrontational or anything, I'm genuinely curious about the p-stem and the -š. —AryamanA (मुझसे बात करेंयोगदान) 05:25, 22 December 2017 (UTC)
@AryamanA, माधवपंडित: Sanskrit (and by extension PIA, I assume) only retained the plural of *Hā́pš, *Hā́pas. To find the you have to look at Avestan 𐬁𐬟𐬱(āfš). Many of the descendents in PIr also stem from the plural, and some even were transfered to ī-declensions, i.e. OP, thus the p. --Victar (talk) 05:54, 22 December 2017 (UTC)
Oh and *š is a regular outcome after *p and *bʰ in PII. I just learned that as well, really. --Victar (talk) 06:04, 22 December 2017 (UTC)
@Victar: So I was just looking at some Sanskrit words and none of them show the -pṣ- one would expect from a PII -pš-. In a few cases where a PII -ps- has occurred, it's always been -ps- in Sanskrit. So maybe the shift from ps --> pš --> fš was just in Iranian. There's no evidence for it in Indo-Aryan. -- माधवपंडित (talk) 01:42, 27 December 2017 (UTC)
@माधवपंडित: I'm going off Skjærvø (2007), page 864. --Victar (talk) 05:59, 27 December 2017 (UTC)
@Victar: I see. Wish he explained more. Still, nice paper. -- माधवपंडित (talk) 06:18, 27 December 2017 (UTC)
@माधवपंडित: It's a major go-to of mine. That said, he could be wrong. It may also only be word-final. --Victar (talk) 06:36, 27 December 2017 (UTC)