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I am perplexed about the claim that there is allegedly an Old English word lah, let alone the claim concerning the origin. Two great dictionaries do not find anything similar about this mysterious lah(first, second). Please, provide this claim with sources, so that it ceases to seem rootless. The ODS leaves no doubt about the Norse root of "low". Bogorm 16:12, 12 August 2008 (UTC)

That Old English falderol was inserted by User:Drago, who spoke only Hungarian but who edited in every language except Hungarian. Most of his edits have been shown to be nonsense. Whenever you see his name, just assume that it is wrong. —Stephen 03:36, 13 August 2008 (UTC)
The OED gives both the Old Mediaeval English, and the Old Norse etymologies, but the two probably have an earlier common origin in a Teutonic source. Dbfirs 10:19, 5 December 2008 (UTC)
(... but Webster's (1913) says "OE") Dbfirs 10:25, 5 December 2008 (UTC)
But the American Heritage Dictionary of English says ON as do the Online Etymology Dictionary and the Merriam-Webster, therefore the Old Norse origin becomes much more reasonable. Bogorm 10:56, 5 December 2008 (UTC)


@CodeCat, Wikitiki89 I wonder if you can take a look at the PIE etymology. Both Derksen and ESSJa distinguish two PIE roots *legʰ- "to lie" and *leh₁ǵʰ- "to crawl on the ground; low" (given as *lēǵʰ- in ESSJa), and derive low and Old Norse lágr from the latter, not the former. They may have been confused in Germanic but they are distinct in Slavic, where the former produces Russian лежать, ложить and the latter produces лезть. Benwing2 (talk) 19:49, 4 February 2017 (UTC)

Philippa gives this as well, while Kroonen sticks with *legʰ-. —CodeCat 20:57, 4 February 2017 (UTC)