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The Drink: A (British) Royal Navy slang term for the sea.

    "There was a big explosion and I found myself in the drink."

This is also used in Australia, not just by the navy. Anybody would understand it and probably use it if they were in a boat. Always with "the" of course. — 01:22, 2 Aug 2004 (UTC)

Added. It's not British - the OED says it was originally American. — Paul G 18:43, 11 June 2006 (UTC)


I changed the Hebrew translations of "drink" (verb) from "שתה" ("shata" - drank, third person past tense) to "לשתות" ("lishtot" - to drink). Liso 11:09, 24 May 2008 (UTC)

Something went wrong with the tenses[edit]

Something is not OK with the tenses, I know this verb as: drink, drank, drunk; and I read that drunk can also be a past simple form in the Southern US but I don't know if drank could be a past participle form. So could anyone explain it or if I'm right correct it? Sincererly, Ferike333 16:03, 28 May 2009 (UTC)

Thanks. You were right overall. Someone should investigate the geographic scope of the "drank" past participle. It is "non-standard" at least in some places among some people. DCDuring TALK 18:53, 28 May 2009 (UTC)
Yes, in the South a lot of people will say "I already drunk it", although it is considered very informal and colloquial. The same people usually say "I’ve already drunk it", but sometimes you can also hear "I’ve already drank it." This is worse than informal; it’s actually considered illiterate. —Stephen 19:39, 28 May 2009 (UTC)
"I've drunk" is correct; the past participle is used with the auxiliary verb "have". I think that's what you were probably been saying, but I wanted to make it clear.
On a related note, if anyone could provide some sourced information about the scope of "drank" as a past participle (as it's now listed), that would be nice, as I certainly wouldn't consider it a valid past participle. Rezecib 15:57, 2 November 2010 (UTC)
No, not "have drunk", just drunk. In Southern American English, it is common to use past participles as the past tense: I seen him do it. I done told you, he drunk it all up. After that, he dove in the water and swum to the other side. I’m telling you, he done it. —Stephen (Talk) 16:21, 2 November 2010 (UTC)
I think it is a general tendency in English to merge past tense and past participle of irregular verbs, based on the fact that they are already identical in the vast majority of verbs. Not just American either, just look at the British forms of get. Maybe the tendency is stronger in some places than in others, but I think overall we're looking at a cross-dialectal phenomenon here, and quite a significant morphological change at that. —CodeCat 17:08, 2 November 2010 (UTC)

Noun definition missing?[edit]

Cannot "drink" also refer to a beverage in general? (For example, at least in my mind, you could say you were going to get a drink, and just drink tap water.) TeragR (talk) 04:28, 25 April 2013 (UTC)

I think that's noun sense 1. —Μετάknowledgediscuss/deeds 05:01, 25 April 2013 (UTC)
I just meant that a drink doesn't have to be served (which is what noun sense 1 indicates). (User:TeragR) 02:35, 20 May 2013 (UTC)
Good point. I've fixed the definition. - -sche (discuss) 02:54, 20 May 2013 (UTC)
Good. Thanks. TeragR (talk) 23:57, 29 May 2013 (UTC)


Why is d͡ʒɹɪŋk given as a pronunciation? 'd͡ʒ' is pronounced like the 'j' in 'jungle'. It makes no sense here. —This unsigned comment was added by (talk).

For some speakers, /d͡ʒ/ is an allophone of /d/ before /ɹ/. — Ungoliant (falai) 22:17, 21 October 2015 (UTC)