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What does English def #2 mean: does, has, should?? — Hippietrail 10:42, 18 Jul 2004 (UTC)

Maybe [s]he is trying to indicate its use as an auxiliary verb as well as a copula? —Muke Tever 12:35, 18 Jul 2004 (UTC)
I thought of that but as it is it's certainly not clear. If you're thinking of the use in making passive verbs, I'm having trouble thinking of ways it's actually used in the present tense. If you're thinking of the way it's used in continuous tenses with the present participle, then it definitely needs to be re-written anyway. And shouldn't such defs exist primarily under "to be"? Are there other ways in which "to be" is used as an auxiliary? — 01:38, 19 Jul 2004 (UTC)

That isn't right, is it ?[edit]

you guys is too smart fer me.clinton kellerman-2008

Etymology surprises me[edit]

I'm surprised that is does not derive from the Latin esse or, more closely, the Spanish es. Is it a cognate? 01:48, 29 November 2012 (UTC)

Right, English is a Germanic language, and the common verb forms such as is are Germanic. It is cognate with Spanish es, French est, Russian есть (jestʹ), Greek ἐστί (ἐstí), Albanian është, Persian است (æst). —Stephen (Talk) 02:05, 29 November 2012 (UTC)