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In Elizabethan English, "to die" meant to have an orgasm. If you want, put it in here. Bibliomaniac15 04:14, 29 March 2006 (UTC)

Do you have any evidence or quotations? --Dvortygirl 04:52, 29 March 2006 (UTC)
I think it was that way in French, too "a little death" Rklawton 02:43, 7 June 2006 (UTC)

died also means a sound that fades away:

Dutch usage note[edit]

The Dutch usage note is correct, but I think the example sentence could be chosen better. Anyone? henne 09:15, 8 November 2006 (UTC)

Thought up a better one, but it can still be optimised. henne 14:38, 14 February 2007 (UTC)

"die for lack of"[edit]

We have this quotation:

Less than three days later, Johnson lapsed into a coma in his jail cell and died for lack of insulin.

as an example of "die" followed by "for", but I think it's a misleading example. Technically, yes, the word "die" is followed by the word "for", but I think the choice of "for" is conditioned here by the use of "lack", rather than the use of "die". I think "for" here simply means "because of" or "due to"; that's not a common use of it any more, but you still see "for lack of", "for want of", and so on. Am I right?
RuakhTALK 20:10, 6 April 2009 (UTC)

Absolutely; it has nothing to do with the verb per se. – Krun 20:54, 6 April 2009 (UTC)

Deletion debate[edit]

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"To cause the death of a player character while controlling it." The usex is "I can't go to level four because I always die against the boss of level three." "Die" is clearly not the remarkable part of that sentence; it's "I" which is being used to mean "the thing I am controlling, my character, my avatar", but I'm not sure if even that merits a sense at [[I]]. - -sche (discuss) 19:06, 10 October 2012 (UTC)

I don't feel that this is a separate sense either, but the way I read that sentence, the "I" who can't go to level four is the player, while the "I" who dies is the in-game character. The in-game character would not know about game levels. Equinox 21:04, 10 October 2012 (UTC)
Delete this. Also if we were to add such a sense to I, we'd need to add it to you, we, they (etc.) same would apply to French je, tu (etc.) unless I'm badly wrong. Mglovesfun (talk) 21:10, 10 October 2012 (UTC)
Also, compare utterances of (say) a player of Tomb Raider, like "I just fell off a cliff" (new sense at fall off?); "I just picked up some ammo" (new sense at pick up?). die is not unique. Delete. Equinox 22:13, 10 October 2012 (UTC)
I think this is also related to an airplane pilot saying "I keep getting hit by birds." even though it is the airplane that is getting hit by birds. The only difference in the video game sense is that the player is not physically located inside the game character. It's just a more figurative use of pronouns (doesn't have to be "I"). --WikiTiki89 (talk) 06:21, 11 October 2012 (UTC)
Delete. Aside from the other problems, there's confusion about the difference between semantics and syntax: "die" is an intransitive verb, and thus can't have a transitive verb like "cause" substitute for it. Although "dying" has the result of the player character dying because of the actions of the player, grammatically there's no object involved. Chuck Entz (talk) 06:54, 11 October 2012 (UTC)
I disagree with that analysis. An intransitive verb can certainly be swapped with a verb phrase headed by a transitive verb; for example, "to converse" means "to make conversation", even though "converse" is intransitive and "make" is transitive. For that matter, "to kill" can be used intransitively to mean "to kill someone", even though the latter phrase uses it transitively. —RuakhTALK 20:22, 13 October 2012 (UTC)
True. The definition is still wrong, though, in that when "I die" in a video, it's usually not because I "caused" my character to die (except in a blame-the-victim-for-the-rape interpretation of causality), it's usually because some baddie killed me against my will. - -sche (discuss) 23:20, 14 October 2012 (UTC)
You still caused it by sucking at playing the game :) Equinox 23:23, 14 October 2012 (UTC)
@-sche Thank you for rescuing my point from my attempt to explain it... Chuck Entz (talk) 01:04, 15 October 2012 (UTC)
There is no more causation here than there is in real life. "The soldier died in the war." Does that mean he caused himself to die because by sucking at fighting in a war? --WikiTiki89 (talk) 08:58, 15 October 2012 (UTC)
Deleted in this edit. - -sche (discuss) 09:13, 31 December 2012 (UTC)


According to Batchelor's 1926 An Ainu-English-Japanese Dictionary, English die translates as ライ (rai). Batchelor also gives this example sentence at イサム (isam "not to be", "it is not"): Rai wa isam, "he has died." (page 193). The particle ワ (wa) with verbs marks something like present participle, or as Batchelor puts it, "The particle itself indicates the English 'ing' and may well be rendered by 'and.'")

If my analysis is correct, イサム is not literally die, though I wouldn't be surprised to hear it used figuratively, rather like "He's not with us anymore." Even disregarding my analysis, though, ライ is Ainu for die according to Batchelor. Cnilep (talk) 07:30, 14 March 2013 (UTC)

English Usage Note[edit]

The usage note is misleading and potentially irrelevant. It seems to indicate that "am/are/is/was/were dead" previously formed a part of the regular paradigm for the verb "die" in place of "have/has/had died". This isn't true. As long as "die" can be considered to have been a verb in English, it has always been possible to use it's past participle with a form of "have" to express a perfect aspect. In fact, contrary to what the note says, the perfect aspect in the past tense was routinely expressed this way in the KJV bible i.e. "had died". Furthermore, "am/are/is/was/were dead" is still a very common figure of speech, much more so than equivalent phrases with "died" (increased use of "has/have died" probably owes most to news reports and headlines). However, this parallel construction is irrelevant to the usage of "die" because the adjective "dead" has been in common use since Old English, even before the Norse loan "die" became the usual verb for this meaning. So, the fact that "dead" has been and remains a very common adjective to describe something that has died does not mean that "have/has/had died" was or is an unusual way to express the perfect aspect of "die", only that, when it comes to being dead, the perfect aspect is usually implicit. 20:50, 31 March 2013 (UTC)

I agree. I've removed it. It was added in this diff. - -sche (discuss) 21:01, 31 March 2013 (UTC)