Wiktionary:Tea room

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Tea house party in Japan (not tea ceremony)-J. M. W. Silver.jpg

A place to ask for help on finding quotations, etymologies, or other information about particular words. The Tea room is named to accompany the Beer parlour.

For questions about the technical operation of Wiktionary use the Beer parlour. For questions about specific content, you're in the right place.

Tea room archives edit

Please do not edit section titles as this breaks links on talk pages and in other discussion fora.

Oldest tagged RFTs


July 2016


Is the etymology correct, i.e. is it really a possessive and not a plural s? Equinox 18:32, 1 July 2016 (UTC)

  • Usually these come from a genitive form (and the OED says this one does), though I think the etymology should say that specifically and not write "handicraft's" since the apostrophe is probably anachronistic. Ƿidsiþ 17:02, 2 July 2016 (UTC)


1549, Sir Thomas Chaloner, The praise of Folie[1], translation of original by Desiderius Erasmus:
Of this grape are suche also as in makynge and publisshinge of new bookes, do fisshe for a praise and glorie.

What sense of grape is this (or is this some kind of mistake in translation / transcription?) DTLHS (talk) 22:10, 1 July 2016 (UTC)

Judging by the intelligibility of the translation, I'd say error, whether in printing or elsewhere I wouldn't say. DCDuring TALK 22:50, 1 July 2016 (UTC)
It looks like this is a translation of: "Huius farinæ sunt et isti, qui libris edendis famam immortalem aucupantur", and is an attempt to provide an equivalent to the metaphor of being made from the same raw material: instead of bread being made from the same meal, it's wine being made of the same grapes. I suppose it's the same metaphor as cut from the same cloth. Chuck Entz (talk) 16:46, 2 July 2016 (UTC)

quiet down, meaning 2[edit]

The second meaning of quiet down and quieten down currently reads

To reduce intensity of an activity.
Diplomacy can only begin when the violence quiets down.

I think the definition should be changed, since the violence is not reducing intensity of anything. I don't know how to phrase it better though.
AxelBoldt (talk) 23:10, 1 July 2016 (UTC)

   I read that example as invoking "quiets [itself] down", i.e. subsides, and believe you've ID'd the need for noting that there are both transitive and intransitive senses. (IMO, the lack of an explicit object is the normal means, at least for this verb, for recognizing the intransitive sense.)
--Jerzyt 07:18, 21 July 2016 (UTC)


Someone who lacks sufficient knowledge has entered declension and stress information on many Russian words inaccurately. The Russian wiktionary entries are correct; the English ones deserve to be treated with suspicion. What made this clown think the plural is end-stressed? The Russian wiktionary shows the stress is stable on this word. The Wiki world is full of dodgy material by people who DON'T KNOW. —This unsigned comment was added by (talk).

The internet is also full of those who anonymously leave gratuitous insults about people they don't know. We've just converted large numbers of entries to use new templates, and have been working on the modules behind them, so it's certainly possible there are errors- I'll leave that to our Russian editors to determine. I'll alert a couple of the people who have been working on this: @Benwing2, Atitarev. Chuck Entz (talk) 15:37, 2 July 2016 (UTC)
It looks like Anatoli accidentally gave this the wrong stress class; fixed. Are there any other words you know that have errors in them? BTW Anatoli certainly does know Russian and is a native speaker with quite a lot of linguistic insight, so I imagine this is an isolated error. In general I think our entries are pretty high quality, and in the case of short adjective forms in many cases we are better than ruwikt. Benwing2 (talk) 16:32, 2 July 2016 (UTC)
Yes, that was an accident. Thanks for fixing. I'm unconcerned about casual morons posting here. I can't be bothered counting errors on the Russian Wiktionary either.--Anatoli T. (обсудить/вклад) 00:34, 3 July 2016 (UTC)
What about оказать then? This is not оказаю. (окажу in the Russian wiki is correct). The entry for скорость is wrong too. It is скоростЕЙ, скоростЯм итд. unsigned comment by User: 18:18, 3 July 2016‎ (UTC)
The Russian conjugations and declensions are accomplished by the use of complex templates. The pattern, or paradigm, for each word is specified by the used of codes such as 1a+p, which tell the template all of the necessary information to write a correct table. However, since these codes are complex, it is rather easy to make a mistake. It is only a typing error (typo). It does not mean that the contributor "lacks knowledge" or "doesn't know". Our Russian editors are very knowledgeable in the language, and they know the correct declensions and conjugations perfectly well. Whenever you find such an error, we are very glad when you point it out for us. However, you should always notify us of errors in a professional and respectful manner, and not accompanied by such insults and rude comments that you used above. Simply say that the declension or conjugation has mistakes and we will fix it right away. —Stephen (Talk) 19:34, 3 July 2016 (UTC)
Yes, constructive criticism or feedback is always appreciated with no insults. We have less people working on the Russian entries here than in the Russian Wiktionary. Yes, I think our overall quality of Russian entries is very high. --Anatoli T. (обсудить/вклад) 03:57, 4 July 2016 (UTC)
I seem to have bumped into Stephen the Twitter warrior. At least Wiki allows more than 140 characters, right? An SJW in his spare time? unsigned comment by User: 19:52, 3 July 2016‎ (UTC)
I don’t use Twitter and I don’t know the abbreviation SJW. оказать and скорость have been corrected. —Stephen (Talk) 20:03, 3 July 2016 (UTC)
бунтарь - ending-stressed in the genitive —This unsigned comment was added by (talk).
бунтарь is corrected. —Stephen (Talk) 20:32, 3 July 2016 (UTC)
SJW=social justice warrior. If I didn't know better, I could swear we're being trolled... Chuck Entz (talk) 03:49, 4 July 2016 (UTC)
Also оглянуться is wrong too. It is not оглянётся, but оглянется. —This unsigned comment was added by (talk) at 18:17, 10 July 2016.
Thanks, I'll fix it. Benwing2 (talk) 19:50, 10 July 2016 (UTC)
So the meaning of SJW has now bleached further to "a person who insists on respectful and polite demeanour" (which includes tons of stuffy conservatives, making the term terminally useless). Noted. --Florian Blaschke (talk) 15:36, 26 July 2016 (UTC)
Only if you take that one person to be using the term accurately, which he isn't... Equinox 15:42, 26 July 2016 (UTC)
Since when were social justice warriors restricted to the internet? --WikiTiki89 15:44, 26 July 2016 (UTC)
When have we changed from descriptive to prescriptive linguistics?
I was alluding to the fact that "SJW" is often used broadly to refer to anyone supportive of feminism or stereotypically leftist/progressive causes (while according to the original definition of the term, some of the people typically supported by people who use "SJW" derisively, ironically, could qualify for the term, compare RationalWiki). With a derisive slang term whose definition is as vague, opportunistic and contested, up to the point where people sarcastically use it as a self-identifier, I doubt it is possible to use it "correctly" or "incorrectly". It's become so void of meaning, it can mean anything you want it to mean. It basically just indicates you don't like someone, like "nazi" or "asshole", and disagree with their (political or other) opinions, as it has not only simply replaced "feminazi" and "pc" as the reactionary slur-to-go, it's become even more general, because it can be used to mock, say, people (vocally) opposed to racism or supportive of environmentalism or content warnings too, without them being known as explicitly concerned with feminism. Actually I think the extension to people demanding respect and politeness is only logical because the original idea of political correctness is nothing more than that, even if its advocates may sometimes be overzealous. --Florian Blaschke (talk) 18:25, 26 July 2016 (UTC)
Why are we even arguing about this? --WikiTiki89 18:41, 26 July 2016 (UTC)

Likely erroneous verb form and conjugation tables[edit]

The Portuguese entry for the verb "vir" most likely has an incorrect spelling of the second person (familiar) singular present. To the best of my knowledge, the correct form is "vens" and not "véns". I'm not knowledgeable enough about editing to edit a verb table, however. S. Neuman (talk) 14:09, 2 July 2016 (UTC)

@S. Neuman Thank you; fixed. Benwing2 (talk) 16:38, 2 July 2016 (UTC)

raw dog & hot dog[edit]

Are these terms related somehow? --Fsojic (talk) 23:31, 2 July 2016 (UTC)


Can someone explain the grammar of the Drummond citation for the adultery sense? I can't parse it. Equinox 13:41, 3 July 2016 (UTC)

  • It's not really a noun here, I think it's in the wrong section – ‘adulting the issue’ here means ‘diluting the parentage of the child’. Ƿidsiþ 13:55, 3 July 2016 (UTC)
    •    Uh, am i crazy, or is the relation in origin of adulterate (cf. adultery) somehow enter in here??
      --Jerzyt 07:26, 21 July 2016 (UTC)

kind of[edit]

What is the etymology trying to say? Equinox 14:41, 3 July 2016 (UTC)

That the expression was originally part of normal expressions of the form "a kind of ADJ NOUN", that speakers came to think of kind of as modifying ADJ, so that one could say "NOUN is kind of ADJ" instead of "NOUN is a kind of ADJ one". DCDuring TALK 15:13, 3 July 2016 (UTC)
Thanks. I find it very hard to comprehend. Want to be brave and improve it? Equinox 08:40, 8 July 2016 (UTC)
I was hoping those with more formal linguistics background than I would address this. DCDuring TALK 11:01, 8 July 2016 (UTC)
Question book magnify2.svg Input needed
This discussion needs further input in order to be successfully closed. Please take a look!
You already have a very full answer, even if you don't realise it. "A kind of problem"---> "kind of a problem". What's so difficult? —This unsigned comment was added by (talk) at 14:49, July 8, 2016.
Hunh? DCDuring TALK 19:05, 8 July 2016 (UTC)
I think the explanation is confusing and unnecessary. Maybe it should be removed ? Leasnam (talk) 17:18, 9 July 2016 (UTC)
I agree. The "explanation" is baffling to me. 02:10, 10 July 2016 (UTC)
What we are dealing with here is your low IQ. There is nothing wrong with the explanation. I think you would be better off directing your attentions to manual hobbies like woodwork. —This unsigned comment was added by (talk) at 11:00, July 12, 2016.
Or learning manners and how to respect others. If an explanation is not so expertly crafted as to be understood by even the youngest of children, then perhaps it's no marvellous explanation at all huh ? Leasnam (talk) 15:06, 12 July 2016 (UTC)

depublish -- use outside California law?[edit]

The only quotations I found for the term "depublish" appeared to be in discussions of the practice of California courts to retroactively prevent previous cases from being used as precedent. If anyone can dig up other quotations, that would be interesting. JesseW (talk) 23:59, 3 July 2016 (UTC)

It seems that unpublish is more common a choice for a prefix meaning reverse + publish.--Prosfilaes (talk) 04:55, 5 July 2016 (UTC)

doneness -- beyond cooking food?[edit]

The only quotations I found for doneness related to cooking food, and so I narrowed the meaning to that. I certainly may have missed some that use it in a broader sense, so I'm bringing it here to see if others can find them. JesseW (talk) 02:27, 4 July 2016 (UTC)

I found another sense. Equinox 10:35, 4 July 2016 (UTC)

light up like the Fourth of July[edit]

Is this, or perhaps just "like the Fourth of July", idiomatic? - -sche (discuss) 01:11, 5 July 2016 (UTC)

I'd vote no: that only rarely would such a simile be suitable for a dictionary. Fourth of July should include a reference to fireworks and that should suffice. DCDuring TALK 05:26, 5 July 2016 (UTC)


I think the uncorporeal page should remark that, even if it is a valid word, one is more likely to want to use incorporeal. Ohnobinki (talk) 16:10, 5 July 2016 (UTC)

Pronunciation of Batman (the Turkish province)[edit]

Please see "Talk:Batman#Pronunciation". — SMUconlaw (talk) 20:08, 5 July 2016 (UTC)

It's pronounced /ˈdɪnə dɪnə dɪnə dɪnə dɪnə dɪnə dɪnə dɪnə bætmæn/. Renard Migrant (talk) 23:03, 12 July 2016 (UTC)
   OK, i'm the self-designated spoilsport. That was a joke, based on the theme music (and single-word lyric) of the 1960's TV show, and it deserves a laugh: Heh!
--Jerzyt 07:49, 21 July 2016 (UTC)
Missing tone notation. —suzukaze (tc) 02:31, 22 July 2016 (UTC)

I created an entry in Wiktionary but unfortunately it was entered as anonymous[edit]

I have just created the entry помолвить in Wiktionary, but I made a mistake of saving it without being logged in. Is there any way to amend the entry's history showing my IP address to rather come up with my proper user name? Cheers —This comment was unsigned.

One good idea would be sign your contributions on discussion pages, such as this one. Are you sure that you want that IP address to be associated publicly with your user name? DCDuring TALK 02:59, 6 July 2016 (UTC)

mula as in money[edit]

I'm surprised we don't have this common slang expression for money - mula. Did I spell it correctly? ---> Tooironic (talk) 01:23, 7 July 2016 (UTC)

moola. --Catsidhe (verba, facta) 01:27, 7 July 2016 (UTC)
Thanks! ---> Tooironic (talk) 02:58, 8 July 2016 (UTC)
Moola or moolah.


I found out that Category:Bahamas is not the Bahamas. I found out that according to this BBC article ([2]),

But according to several authoritative sources, such as the CIA World Factbook, the Times Comprehensive Atlas of the World and the US Department of State, only two countries, The Bahamas and The Gambia, should officially be referred to with the article.

Would it be better to change it to Category:The Bahamas? --KoreanQuoter (talk) 14:34, 7 July 2016 (UTC)


Does this word fit in Category:English words with vowel pseudo-digraphs? DTLHS (talk) 21:01, 7 July 2016 (UTC)

Tangential: as I wrote at WT:RFM#Category:English_words_with_consonant_pseudo-digraphs, I wonder if there's any practical way of maintaining these categories... - -sche (discuss) 22:27, 7 July 2016 (UTC)


Would this be an example of a word that is pronounced differently in the UK and the US? In Australia I guess FILL-eut is more common, while my American friend insists they always pronounce it as fill-LAY. ---> Tooironic (talk) 02:59, 8 July 2016 (UTC)

Well, the only person I've heard to pronounce the final consonant was from England, and the pseudo-French pronunciation is very common here in the US, but I don't know anything about the relative frequencies in the UK. After all, hypercorrection can theoretically happen anywhere. Chuck Entz (talk) 03:11, 8 July 2016 (UTC)
AIUI, and from my life experience as a Brit: "fillet" has the final /t/, but "filet" (as a French loan) does not. (Chambers Dictionary agrees with me on this.) One common exception is the McDonald's burger called Filet-o-Fish: they pronounce the /t/ in their advertising, and it would feel a bit pretentious to use the French pronunciation for fast food. Equinox 03:21, 8 July 2016 (UTC)
In American McDonald'ses it's pronounced "fi-LAY o' fish" and that doesn't feel pretentious to us at all. But my experience of American English includes only the word filet; I don't think fillet was ever a part of my active vocabulary, and not a very significant part of my passive vocabulary, either. —Aɴɢʀ (talk) 08:33, 8 July 2016 (UTC)
For one thing, fillet is a verb; there's no way to be "filleting" a fish without /t/. Re McDonald's, see their 1990s ad on YouTube [3]: "fille/t/ o' fish for my wife!" (a bit of a catchphrase for Brits of a certain age, I suspect). Equinox 08:36, 8 July 2016 (UTC)
Well, that's another pondian difference then. In US English you'd be fileting a fish and pronouncing it to rhyme with "praying". —Aɴɢʀ (talk) 17:42, 8 July 2016 (UTC)
I find it fascinating that some French words are pronounced French-like in British and English-like in American and some are pronounced French-like in American and English-like in British. In all cases everyone makes fun of everyone for pronouncing things wrong. --WikiTiki89 18:17, 8 July 2016 (UTC)

no-lose synonym[edit]

I heard a financial word that sounds like "albatross" which is essentially a no-lose scenario for the investor - they either (at minimum) break even or come out ahead, but do not lose on the investment. It's fundamentally the opposite of a "lose-lose" situation... has anyone heard of this word and the proper spelling?

Well, an "albatross" would refer to a lose-lose situation, perhaps you're thinking of this? Benwing2 (talk) 23:18, 9 July 2016 (UTC)
   (Do note that albatross(albatross) as a metaphor -- for a worthless burden you can't get rid of -- is based on The Rime of the Ancient Mariner.)
   Could the non-signing colleague possibly be confusing in the term arbitrage(arbitrage)?
--Jerzyt 08:10, 21 July 2016 (UTC)


I'm English and can tell the editors for nothing that "ternament" is not an RP pronunciation of this word. It would be regarded in England as an ignorant pronunciation by someone who didn't know the correct pronunciation.

That looks strange to me too. Equinox 22:27, 8 July 2016 (UTC)
All the pronunciations look strange - I've never heard /-mɛnt/, only /-mənt/. Keith the Koala (talk) 17:20, 10 July 2016 (UTC)
Yes, Keith the Koala, you're right, it is /-mənt/ (or more likely /-mənʔ/ with a glottal stop). —This unsigned comment was added by (talk) at 18:16, 10 July 2016.
Better? I can personally attest that in American English all three initial vowels exist. --WikiTiki89 14:42, 11 July 2016 (UTC)


I was wondering if the character 𧦅 is a shinjitai form of 謳 (part of JIS X 0213). Could anyone clarify this is correct? Dingo1234555 (talk) 03:33, 9 July 2016 (UTC)

It's for round-trip compatibility (謳 = 1-75-80, 𧦅 = 2-88-54): "To preserve data integrity through multiple stages of code conversion (commonly known as “round-trip integrity”), any ideographs that are separately encoded in any one of the source standards listed below have not been unified." Nibiko (talk) 07:12, 9 August 2016 (UTC)


The AAVE sense of the term that I have quoted means running [away from] but evidently, it is a contraction of "mercenary" meaning "to kill". Does anyone have any better sources on this? I would love to expand our coverage of American slang. —Justin (koavf)TCM 05:12, 9 July 2016 (UTC)

I thought it might come from murder, not mercenary. Equinox 13:47, 9 July 2016 (UTC)
What about Mercury (for the running sense)? Leasnam (talk) 17:16, 9 July 2016 (UTC)
AAVE isn't particularly known for allusions to Roman mythology. The slang term merc, short for mercenary, does exist (it's in the New Oxford American Dictionary app on my computer). Semantically, one could make a connection based on fighters who are only in it for the money being less likely to stay around when things go bad. Chuck Entz (talk) 20:26, 9 July 2016 (UTC)
Well, no, but it's not an allusion necessaily to Roman mythology. Lot's of familiar companies use Mercury's winged sandals, for instance Goodyear tires do, and so does a footwear brand (Athletes ?). Red Bull is another, right ? Anyway, it was just a guess :) Leasnam (talk) 22:03, 9 July 2016 (UTC)
Do those actually mention the name Mercury, or do they just use symbols that can be recognized by someone familiar with Greek mythology? Chuck Entz (talk) 23:16, 9 July 2016 (UTC)
With Goodyear/Michelin, they're called Mercury tires. I think Mercury is also the name of several different labels of athletic shoes. My reasoning for the connection, I could honestly see someone saying "You need to move/act/fly like Mercury" => "you need to Mercury yourself up out of here" => etc. though it's a distant connection at best Leasnam (talk) 23:34, 9 July 2016 (UTC)


I'm a bit puzzled by etymology 2 here. The form ἄω ‎(áō) doesn't actually occur in the inflection table, so is it even attested? Or should the lemma be moved to one that is attested, ἄεσα ‎(áesa)? —CodeCat 20:51, 9 July 2016 (UTC)

Attested or not, it seems to meet CFI's LDL requirements, since it's in LSJ under ἄω. It may be a more extreme case, but our treatment of it follows from the decisions to always use the present active first-person singular as the lemma, and to show unattested forms in inflections. Moving it to what's normally a non-lemma form would be inconsistent, but then there doesn't seem to be any unreservedly good choice here, just a very few that are all flawed, but in different ways. Chuck Entz (talk) 22:52, 9 July 2016 (UTC)
Well, for Latin deponent verbs, we use the passive form because the active form doesn't exist. Same for Greek ones. We don't use the present of meminī as the lemma either. This case, which also lacks the present, seems similar enough. —CodeCat 23:08, 9 July 2016 (UTC)
All of those are semantically present and active, even if they're morphologically passive or perfect. More importantly, there's a consistent practice among dictionaries and lexicons of those languages to use them as lemmas. I don't see that here. Chuck Entz (talk) 23:38, 9 July 2016 (UTC)

VIN, vehicle identification number[edit]

Re (US) labels: these terms may have originated in the US, but seem to be much more widespread now. DonnanZ (talk) 11:36, 10 July 2016 (UTC)

Could be. I have moved the main entry to vehicle identification number based on it apparently being the more common form. OTOH VIN is more common than vin. DCDuring TALK 15:37, 10 July 2016 (UTC)
A good move, I was going to suggest that. Yes VIN is the common form, not to be confused with vin (wine). The words VIN/Chassis|Frame No. appear on the registration certificate dated 1999 for my old Mercedes, so the term has been used here for quite a while. DonnanZ (talk) 16:01, 10 July 2016 (UTC)
  • No further comments forthcoming, so I have removed the labels. DonnanZ (talk) 09:13, 13 July 2016 (UTC)
    I'd give it a week because we have some folks that drop by on only a weekly basis. DCDuring TALK 12:29, 13 July 2016 (UTC)


I think all of the adjective senses could be combined into "of or pertaining to a brother or brothers". Does anyone disagree? DTLHS (talk) 18:06, 10 July 2016 (UTC)

I agree, except for numbers 3 and 6. --Paradichlorobenzene (talk) 18:30, 10 July 2016 (UTC)
Agreed, but I would probably leave 8 as a separate sense as well. Andrew Sheedy (talk) 23:29, 10 July 2016 (UTC)

click and klick[edit]


  1. Alternative spelling of click


  1. Alternative spelling of klick

I think it would be useful if one or both of these had a context label?? Keith the Koala (talk) 20:26, 10 July 2016 (UTC)

Not a label but a gloss and sense id. —CodeCat 20:36, 10 July 2016 (UTC)

or words to that effect[edit]

This entry is too specific and should be replaced by to that effect. In addition to the example given

When he hit his finger with the hammer, he said "ouch" or words to that effect.

...it could also accommodate...

Your sister also said something to that effect.

DanwWiki (talk) 13:41, 11 July 2016 (UTC)

Yup. Thanks. We have {{rfm}} (to be inserted in the entry) to initiate the process of considering such a move. What seems natural and desirable to you or me wouldn't always seem so to others. DCDuring TALK 18:19, 12 July 2016 (UTC)
Many dictionaries have some of all of to the effect (that)/to the effect that, in effect, take effect, for effect. Only one OneLook reference has or words to that effect. I wonder whether we would have it were it not for the abbreviation OWTTE. DCDuring TALK 18:29, 12 July 2016 (UTC)

until the cows come home[edit]

Could someone check if I applied {{head}} properly in "until the cows come home"? There are examples of the phrase appearing the form until the cows came home, but I'm not sure if this is correctly described as the "simple past and past participle" of the phrase. (Also, I found one instance of the form until the cows are coming home, but this was from a work by an Indian author so it could be an isolated non-standard form. I don't suppose I should add this to the entry, should I?) — SMUconlaw (talk) 15:48, 12 July 2016 (UTC)

A prepositional phrase is not really a verb. But I think what I did is better at the very least. --WikiTiki89 17:26, 12 July 2016 (UTC)
Thanks. I wasn't sure about how to deal with this situation – I don't have a linguistics background. — SMUconlaw (talk) 17:46, 12 July 2016 (UTC)
Nor do I really. I'm a self-taught linguist (and mostly through thinking rather than reading). --WikiTiki89 17:49, 12 July 2016 (UTC)
The phrase is a subordinate clause, not a prepositional phrase.
My preference would have been to not include the tense variations on the inflection line. One possibility would be to treat all the attestable variations (til, singular cow, possibly different determiners [all the] and adjectives [eg, proverbial, sea, metaphorical, unholy] as well as different verb tenses and aspects) as alternative forms. Another is to have a usage note for the classes of exploitative variations. Those possibilities could be combined.

intermediate precision[edit]

Do such terms as "intermediate precision" merit inclusion in the dictionary? ---CopperKettle (talk) 17:28, 12 July 2016 (UTC)

Isn't it just intermediate + precision? --WikiTiki89 17:31, 12 July 2016 (UTC)
I see. It's only a sum of parts. Thank you. --CopperKettle (talk) 08:22, 13 July 2016 (UTC)


  1. 1885 November 20, English Mechanic and World of Science[4], volume 42, page 241:
    [] and not be led astray by the coveted, but most fallacious, "honour" of orthodox interment in the sarcophagan "journals," or "horals" of any scientific "society," by which so many "good men and true" have been totally lost to the practical world of science.

What does this mean? DTLHS (talk) 18:59, 12 July 2016 (UTC)

Possibly unrelated DTLHS (talk) 19:21, 12 July 2016 (UTC)
A journal posted once every hour? Latin hōra. Renard Migrant (talk) 22:57, 12 July 2016 (UTC)
Right: it's the difference between Latin diurnal (French journal) and horal. The writer is probably satirising their excessively frequent publication. Equinox 23:32, 12 July 2016 (UTC)

Noch ist Polen nicht verloren[edit]

I made a little mistake. It must be noch ist Polen nicht verloren, I think. Could one of you guys move it? Sorry and thanks! Kolmiel (talk) 20:16, 12 July 2016 (UTC)

I've moved it Leasnam (talk) 20:36, 12 July 2016 (UTC)

storm stick or stormstick[edit]

Has anyone else heard this term, or is it confined to Australia and NZ? It's a jocular name for an umbrella. I certainly remember it [5]. DonnanZ (talk) 19:38, 13 July 2016 (UTC)

circular definitions – motion picture and film[edit]

The third definition for film is motion picture. The second definition for motion picture is film. What is the difference between the meanings defined on the page motion picture? --Anareth (talk) 05:25, 14 July 2016 (UTC)

Thanks. Our basic English-language content suffers from many lapses like this, principally lack of extensive verbal definitions or of explanatory images.
Both motion picture and film (with this meaning) are much less common than movie, which is where IMO a substantive definition should be. I've taken a run at such a definition. Please take a look. DCDuring TALK 11:03, 14 July 2016 (UTC)
In Br. English we are more likely to use the term film, rather than the other two. Could motion picture be considered old-fashioned now? DonnanZ (talk) 11:08, 14 July 2016 (UTC)
I don't know. You could check how OneLook dictionaries treat it. One Look has Oxford, Cambridge, Collins, and Macmillan that have good UK coverage and AHD, RHU, WNW, and MW that have good US coverage. Google News supports country-specific searches so relative frequency of the terms could be compared.
Motion picture is still in use, probably because movie seems so informal. DCDuring TALK 13:01, 14 July 2016 (UTC)
Well, according to Oxford motion picture is "chiefly North American" (“motion picture” (US) / “Tea room” (UK) in Oxford Dictionaries, Oxford University Press.). It doesn't say it's old-fashioned though. DonnanZ (talk) 13:15, 14 July 2016 (UTC)
"Motion picture" is dated in informal use, but not in names of institutions, job titles, regulations, etc. —This unsigned comment was added by Chuck Entz (talkcontribs) at 09:41 14 July 2016.

transferal vs. transferral[edit]

Only transferral is used in British English, is transferal used in the US? Which is considered the main form? DonnanZ (talk) 10:13, 14 July 2016 (UTC)

This doesn't happen with referral - there is no entry for referal. DonnanZ (talk) 11:40, 14 July 2016 (UTC)

Google N-Gram shows that the 2-r form has been more common in books from 1940 to 2008, but has declined in relative usage since about 1990. DCDuring TALK 15:20, 14 July 2016 (UTC)
Looking at transferral at OneLook Dictionary Search and transferal at OneLook Dictionary Search shows that some British dictionaries have the main entry at transferral and US at transferal. None I've seen mark either spelling as regional. DCDuring TALK 15:25, 14 July 2016 (UTC)
(e/c) See transferal vs. transferral, referal vs. referral. See also transferal vs. transferral specifically in British English and in American English. Seems that the main entry should be moved to transferral because that is more common overall. An interesting note is that my spell checker marks transferral and referal as misspelled. --WikiTiki89 15:27, 14 July 2016 (UTC)
(edit conflict) Separated out by national variety, the two-r version is still much more common in en-GB, but the one-r version has become more common in en-US since 2001. (In my own writing I wouldn't use either form, but would just use transfer as a noun.) "Referal", on the other hand, is virtually nonexistent in both national varieties. Interestingly, Chrome's spellchecker, when set to en-US, marks "transferral" as a spelling error but approves "transferal". —Aɴɢʀ (talk) 15:29, 14 July 2016 (UTC)
All very interesting, and yet very odd - why does it happen to transferral and not to referral? Pronunciation perhaps? I would pronounce them both the same way. DonnanZ (talk) 16:32, 14 July 2016 (UTC)
As an American English speaker, transferal looks somewhat wrong to me, but YMMV. Maybe it's based on the difference in pronunciation of the base forms TRANSfer vs. reFER (even though this doesn't apply to the derived terms). Could be just random though. Benwing2 (talk) 16:36, 14 July 2016 (UTC)
  • FWIW, I think Google's spellchecker is in the wrong. And transferal with one r parses to me as trans- + feral, which is all kinds of wrong.
For background, I grew up in the Washington, DC area with native-English-speaking parents who hailed from Minnesota and New York state. ‑‑ Eiríkr Útlendi │Tala við mig 21:55, 14 July 2016 (UTC)
I think it's because as Angr said that most Americans would just use transfer instead, and therefore the spelling of transferral is left to the people who actually use the word, who are more likely to be Brits living in America or something like that. --WikiTiki89 16:39, 14 July 2016 (UTC)
Hmm, maybe. I've just been looking at conferral, deferral, and inferral - no other spellings entered. DonnanZ (talk) 16:49, 14 July 2016 (UTC)
I did a little more digging and found that transferal is the spelling used when stressed on the first syllable, which is apparently how it's pronounced in American legalese. --WikiTiki89 17:24, 14 July 2016 (UTC)
Ah, does that explain the two different IPA pronunciations given? I haven't learnt how to read those things. DonnanZ (talk) 20:41, 14 July 2016 (UTC)
Nope. All the transcriptions there put the stress on the second syllable. The difference between the two British ones is whether the vowel is as in father or as in trap. --WikiTiki89 20:50, 14 July 2016 (UTC)
All trans- words have the "a" as in trap. Listen to the audio here [6]. DonnanZ (talk) 20:58, 14 July 2016 (UTC)
I'm just telling you what the IPA says. --WikiTiki89 21:12, 14 July 2016 (UTC)
Even the page Donnanz linked to gives the option of pronouncing the a as in father, it just doesn't have a corresponding sound file. —Aɴɢʀ (talk) 21:15, 14 July 2016 (UTC)
OK, I'll admit that it's feasible, but I never hear the "aa" form in the Greater London / Surrey area. DonnanZ (talk) 21:24, 14 July 2016 (UTC)
/ˈtrɑːnsfɜː/ sounds plausible, but I'm not certain I've ever heard it. Renard Migrant (talk) 14:47, 15 July 2016 (UTC)
The OED and Chambers both have that pronunciation. It sounds dated and plummy to me, but I'm an Estuary yob. Equinox 16:50, 15 July 2016 (UTC)

"filler text" terms[edit]

ABCDEFGHIJKLMNOPQRSTUVWXYZ, abcdefghijklmnopqrstuvwxyz, asdfghjkl, asdfghjkl;, qwertyuiop. Not sure about these being uncountable nouns. If anything I would class them as interjections, since they don't occupy any particular slot in the grammar. Thoughts? Equinox 16:44, 15 July 2016 (UTC)

Unless they're used to refer to the filler text rather than serving as the filler text themselves, I would get rid of the filler text senses altogether- by definition, they don't mean anything. In other words, it's okay to have an entry for lorem ipsum, but not for "Lorem ipsum dolor sit amet...".
By the way: the quote from Cicero in the lorem ipsum entry doesn't belong there: it may be the source of lorem ipsum text, but it isn't lorem ipsum text itself. Perhaps a trimmed version of the text could be moved into the etymology.Chuck Entz (talk) 20:17, 15 July 2016 (UTC)
I tidied up the entry and moved the Cicero quote into a footnote in the etymology section. — SMUconlaw (talk) 11:14, 19 July 2016 (UTC)


Currently, there are many senses listed under the etymology of the agent noun that are not derived from verbs and don't seem to have much to do with an agent noun. In particular, something like pro-lifer seems more like a person associated with the pro-life movement than someone who engages in some kind of action. Therefore, I'm tempted to think that these senses actually belong under the "inhabitant" etymology, further down, placing it instead in the same league as New Yorker for example. —CodeCat 18:04, 15 July 2016 (UTC)

Yeah, a pro-lifer isn't someone who "pro-lifes", so it isn't quite the same thing as runner or frequent flier. OTOH I think we are getting too specific with some of our senses, since "person who subscribes to a particular conspiracy theory or unorthodox belief" (truther) is just one particular type of turning a thing-noun into a person-who-likes-it-noun, like pro-lifer. Equinox 18:39, 15 July 2016 (UTC)
Isn't a New Yorker someone who New Yorks? --WikiTiki89 18:44, 15 July 2016 (UTC)
No, it's someone who just started Yorking... Chuck Entz (talk) 18:50, 15 July 2016 (UTC)
I think senses 6 and 7 can be merged into a simpler "person associated with or promoting". —CodeCat 19:17, 15 July 2016 (UTC)
I agree. - -sche (discuss) 19:39, 15 July 2016 (UTC)
What's wrong with Etymology 4? Chuck Entz (talk) 18:55, 15 July 2016 (UTC)
Nothing in principle, but how many nouns are really derived from that etymology, and is it really productive? There's not much in the entry to decide. —CodeCat 19:14, 15 July 2016 (UTC)
After thinking about it some more, Latin -ārius was attached to nouns, to indicate a person associated with something, very similar to the sense in English. This sense remains productive in modern French, so it's a good source for the English version. We'd really need some Old and Middle English usages to see how this evolved. —CodeCat 19:31, 15 July 2016 (UTC)
The -ier page notes that the English descendant is -eer, which makes sense in terms of stress. This suffix is stressed, while -er is not. —CodeCat 19:35, 15 July 2016 (UTC)
The occupational sense illustrated by astrologer, cricketer, trumpeter would seem to belong under Etymology 4, notwithstanding that a trumpeter is also one who trumpets. It had never heard cricketer, but had heard cricketeer. Are there other such alternants?
Does the OED have a satisfactory explanation of -er as used in senses 2-7 of Etymology 1?
Supporting Chuck: in the absence of other etymological explanations, Etymology 4 does seem to me the best location for all of what are now senses 2-7 of Etymology 1. DCDuring TALK 22:13, 15 July 2016 (UTC)
Even sense 2? It's not an agent noun, but a patient noun, so it's still associated with the verb, which can't be said for the other senses. —CodeCat 22:20, 15 July 2016 (UTC)
Also, what explanation can be found for the stress alternation between -er and -eer? —CodeCat 22:23, 15 July 2016 (UTC)
Sense 2 is the least suitable for the shift, but the examples are obviously not strictly speaking instances of agency.
One source I like to look at for affixes is Michael Quinion's Affixes: the building blocks of English, which has this for something like Etymology 4. He includes looker there.
Though it would be interesting to "account for" the stress alternation, there is no denying that it exists, at least in the case of cricketer/cricketeer. Also, I am using the alternant synchronically because the diachronics is what we are trying to deal with. If there are no other examples, we could basically ignore it. Many of the modern formations from -eer seem to be informal, possibly more so than comparable formations from -er, though the Variety -er, for one, is principally informal. DCDuring TALK 22:47, 15 July 2016 (UTC)

Swing shift[edit]

The swing shift page here, as well as on other online dictionaries lists swing shift as the equivalent to second shift (usually 4pm-12 midnight). I have never ever heard swing shift ever be used when talking about second shift, and everyone else in my family agrees that this definition is bogus.

Swing shift to us means an alternation of shifts. As in a set cycle of working days then nights. For example in a month, one could work 2 weeks of days, then have a week off, then work the following two weeks nights. Called so because one who works it swings between the two shifts. One who works such shifts is a swing shifter. Has anyone ever actually heard swing shift refer to the second shift? Rhinorulz (talk) 18:59, 15 July 2016 (UTC)

I've never encountered your definition before, but it's easy enough to find examples of both in Google Books. Chuck Entz (talk) 20:28, 15 July 2016 (UTC)

no more = dead[edit]

This may not be of first-class importance: but does it make sense to say that "no more" has a sense "dead" just because of phrases like: When I am no more... He is no more..., etc.?? I mean, obviously, this is just "to be" in the sense of "to be there, to be alive" negated by the adverb. (Or in other words, it's: he is no more, not: he is no more.) May I delete? Kolmiel (talk) 20:04, 15 July 2016 (UTC)

Probably. One can also say someone "lives no more", "breathes no more", etc. - -sche (discuss) 20:24, 15 July 2016 (UTC)
If you replace be with exist, it becomes obvious that be isn't a copula in this context, but a regular verb. Chuck Entz (talk) 20:32, 15 July 2016 (UTC)
I agree. --WikiTiki89 20:48, 15 July 2016 (UTC)
Okay, thanks. Done. Kolmiel (talk) 21:43, 15 July 2016 (UTC)


1900, John Bostock, The Natural History of Pliny[7], volume 2, translation of original by Pliny, page 537:
A feather also is inserted, and passed across through the nostrils, care being taken to move it every day; while their food consists of leeks mixed with speltmeal, or else is first soaked in water in which an owlet has been dipped, or boiled together with the seeds of the white vine.

Is he literally talking about a small owl, or is there some other use? DTLHS (talk) 21:17, 15 July 2016 (UTC)

I think it's literal. OED only reports two senses: (1) young owl; (2) (US) owlet moth, a type of moth (but no quotation containing the latter goes further back than the 19th century). — SMUconlaw (talk) 21:38, 15 July 2016 (UTC)
This translation has "either steeped in water in which an owl has been dipped or else...", which suggests that he is indeed talking about an owl. How odd. - -sche (discuss) 22:25, 15 July 2016 (UTC)
It is possible that Pliny was reporting on the use of a specimen of Athene noctua (the little owl), common in Europe and Asia. The adults are only about 22 centimeters long and weigh about 180 grams. DCDuring TALK 22:58, 15 July 2016 (UTC)
Here is the Latin text, and you'll note that the word used is noctua. It's a real owl, all right, and almost certainly Athene noctua. Chuck Entz (talk) 00:55, 16 July 2016 (UTC)
Poor owl. — SMUconlaw (talk) 10:46, 19 July 2016 (UTC)

whose coups?[edit]

generals' coup[edit]

colonels' coup[edit]

Are these just SoP terms - a coup led by generals, or a coup led by colonels? Keith the Koala (talk) 12:51, 16 July 2016 (UTC)

From the definitions I gather that a colonels' coup does not have to be led by colonels specifically, but by any somewhat lower-ranking kind of officer. That would make it not SoP. —CodeCat 22:23, 16 July 2016 (UTC)

Definition of capitalism[edit]

Does anyone know where to look for definitions in old dictionaries from, say, a century ago?

What do you think of the current definition of capitalism?

  • (politics, uncountable) a socio-economic system based on private property rights, including the private ownership of resources or capital, with economic decisions made largely through the operation of a market unregulated by the state.
  • (economics, uncountable) a socio-economic system based on the abstraction of resources into the form of privately owned capital, with economic decisions made largely through the operation of a market unregulated by the state.

Here is the definition from January 2005.

A social and economic system based on the protection of individual rights, especially property rights, including the private ownership of resources or capital. The practical implementation of capitalism within political systems varies between complete (laizzes-faire) free markets and mixed-economy state-capitalism.

I've looked at other sources and Investopedia.com among others draws a distinction between capitalism and free market.

The criteria in terms of distinction seems to be between a market economy and a mixed one with the former corresponding with the free market ideal.

Perhaps two definitions can co-exist seeing that mainstream usage of the word has evolved?

Thanks in advance for your suggestions. --JamesPoulson (talk) 13:12, 16 July 2016 (UTC)

You could try looking for old full-text dictionaries at Google Books. — SMUconlaw (talk) 18:49, 16 July 2016 (UTC)
Re: Current definitions: "a socio-economic system based on the abstraction of resources into the form of privately owned capital" What does "abstraction of resources into" mean?
Generally, Palgrave is the best source for definitions of economic concepts, at least for the purposes of economists. The articles are long. The abstract of the one for capitalism, by Robert Heilbroner, from the 2008 edition follows:
"Capitalism is a unique historical formation with core institutions and distinct movements. It involves the rise of a mercantile class, the separation of production from the state, and a mentality of rational calculation. Its characteristic logic revolving around the accumulation of capital reflects the omnipresence of competition. It displays broad tendencies to unprecedented wealth creation, skewed size distributions of enterprise, large public sectors, and cycles of activity. Whereas students of capitalism traditionally envisaged an end to the capitalist period of history, modern economists show little interest in historical projection."
Such a definition is obviously too long for a dictionary and may not reflect actual usage, even by economists. capitalism in The Century Dictionary, The Century Co., New York, 1911 has "The concentration or massing of capital in the hands of a few; also, the power or influence of large or combined capital."
MWOnline has: "an economic system characterized by private or corporate ownership of capital goods, by investments that are determined by private decision, and by prices, production, and the distribution of goods that are determined mainly by competition in a free market". This definition seems good but it excludes state capitalism.
If one's definition of capital means tools of production then any definition of the term capitalism that used the word capital without somehow referencing unfairness or at least inequality or concentration misses the mark on current usage, say, on an "Occupy Wall Street" poster. DCDuring TALK 19:23, 16 July 2016 (UTC)
Archive.org Subject:English language dictionaries has a pretty good collection. Especially check out the New English Dictionary on Historical Principles -- that is, the OED1 before it got named the Oxford English Dictionary.--Prosfilaes (talk) 19:57, 25 July 2016 (UTC)

kunstig intelligens and similar Danish adjective + noun non-SoP locutions[edit]

User:Donnanz recently introduced me to a problem with my entry kunstig intelligens, which I made several mistakes in at once adding the inflections of because I have to combine adjective and noun inflection, and also abide by the adjective + noun rules in the Danish language. They are, to my knowledge, as follows:

(I am using "kedelig klasse" as an example, which means "boring class" in English)

  • The singular indefinite is the lemma form, obviously would just be "kedelig klasse" as in "en kedelig klasse" (a boring class)
  • plural adjective + noun (the boring classes) would be {plural of adjective} + {plural indefinite of noun}. This would be "de kedelige klasser" (the boring classes, de means "the" in the plural). This would replace a noun's plural definite form.
  • singular adjective + noun (the boring class) would be {definite of adjective) + {singular indefinite (not definite) of noun}. This would be den kedelige klasse. (NOT de kedelige klassen) This replaces the singular definite.
  • plural INDEFINITE is just {plural of adjective} + {plural of noun} I believe. So it would just be like saying "boring classes are ____", so that would be kedelige klasser er ____".
  • The genitives I believe are the same, as in "kedelig klasses", "den kedelige klasses", "kedelige klassers", and "de kedelige klassers".

So what are we supposed to do about creating entries for these? The problem is, putting "the" before an entry is kind of impractical, but in this case we may have no choice? Also, as I've been confused with this, many other users, maybe even native Danish speakers, may very easily make mistakes when modifying the inflection templates with these locutional inflections. Although, hypothetically, shouldn't they technically be here? I mean inflections of non-SoP locutions are still not SoP and verified, and therefore exist, are attestable, and are words, right? But how would we go about it?

A suggestion I have: we could create "kunstige intelligenser" and put something like this:

# {{plural indefinite of|kunstig intelligens|lang=da}}

# {{context|used with [[de]]|lang=da}} {{plural definite of|kunstig intelligens|lang=da}}

And "kunstige intelligens" as:

# {{context|used with [[den]]|lang=da}} {{singular definite of|kunstig intelligens|lang=da}}

What do you guys think about this? Especially asking people more knowledgable in Danish than I, such as natives. @User:Donnanz, @User:Pinnerup, @User:Gamren, @User:ContraVentum

(See also: the precursor to this topic at RFV) Philmonte101 (talk) 22:06, 16 July 2016 (UTC)

  • Leave the entry in the indefinite singular form as it is at present. There is no point in creating a load of inflections, especially genitive forms (I don't know why we bother with those, they're not entered in Norwegian fortunately). DonnanZ (talk) 08:52, 17 July 2016 (UTC)
  • @User:Donnanz Genitives are still inflections of the noun. The only reason we don't include 's inflections in English here is because everyone who comes here already know what English genitives mean, and because 's and s' are just additions to the word rather than actual inflections, as we decided via consensus. We haven't decided the same thing for Danish. The reason that it's good to have Danish genitive inflections is because you'll have people coming here looking for a Danish word when they don't know anything about genitives or singular definites or most of the other linguistic stuff that we're even discussing here. Someone could look up intelligensens for example, when they found the word looking at a Danish newspaper, having literally no idea what the word meant. So there it is: "genitive singular definite of intelligens", so they go to "intelligens" to see that it means "intelligence", or "intelligentsia", or "..." well whatever else, you know what I mean. Beautiful, right? So there you have it. Consider our lurkers. In short words "why bother?" is a question we barely ask here about inflections that are attestable, correct, and not SoP. The worst that could really happen is making certain inflections redirects, such as with English locutional verbs containing words like "one's", so use a bot to redirect "my", "his", "your" inflections. Philmonte101 (talk) 09:24, 17 July 2016 (UTC)
  • I don't mind entries for inflected forms (like "intelligensens" and "kunstige intelligenser"), but I don't think we should create entries prefixed with "de" or similar. Nor do I think we should include "(used with de)" headings in such entries, just like we don't include "(used with los)" in the entry for Spanish hombres or "(used with die)" in the entry for German Hunde. However I think we could perhaps have an inflection template for Danish adjective-noun composite terms like these, and then we could insert that into the entry for the base lemma to show the relevant forms. How does that sound? —Pinnerup (talk) 12:54, 17 July 2016 (UTC)
  • That sounds like a great idea, Pinnerup. But why do you not like it to say "used with de"? I understand what you're saying. Although hombres is not always used with "los". I've certainly seen (informal) cases of "Hombres son ____" or "_____s son ____" in Spanish. I am not knowledgable of German, so I can't relate to that example. Although, can an adjective+noun locution really be plural definite without having the "de" before it? I mean are there significant informal cases in Danish where the addition of "de" is not used for the plural definite? I don't know, I'm asking you since I am not a native Danish speaker. Philmonte101 (talk) 13:08, 17 July 2016 (UTC)
The place of the definite article may be taken by one of many other words, like a noun or a pronoun. I am inclined to agree with Donnanz that we do not need these inflections; however, I would not mind if someone made a derivative of {{da-noun-infl}} that linkifies each word. The genitive forms always seemed silly to me, too. Your argument about English genitives does not make sense; we do not exclude information merely because "everyone knows it already".__Gamren (talk) 08:54, 18 July 2016 (UTC)
Your questions about "why do we need genitives in Danish" are very simply answered by asking yourselves "why do people read dictionaries (besides to help edit them)?" They read dictionaries to find out what words mean. And if Wiktionary doesn't have an "-ens" form of a noun, when someone doesn't know have any clue what that means or if it's a lemma or not, then people are left clueless. Keep in mind that not everyone, in fact very few people, in this world, are trained enough to know the basic linguistic structure of nearly every language (notice I said nearly). So, as a dictionary, we should respect those who don't have a clue what the word they're looking for means, and who don't know a lot of this linguistic terminology we're using ("genitives", "possessives", "locutions", etc.) by including Danish genitives. Same with Norwegian genitives, or Swedish genitives. Just my opinion. Philmonte101 (talk) 11:19, 18 July 2016 (UTC)


Do all of these citations fit under the same definition, particularly the earlier ones? DTLHS (talk) 16:48, 17 July 2016 (UTC)


According to the OED this has a different meaning in North America. Can anyone help? ---> Tooironic (talk) 02:59, 18 July 2016 (UTC)

I don’t think it’s a different meaning in N.A. Maybe some minor variation in legalities related to the creation of a townsite. See w:townsite. —Stephen (Talk) 11:36, 19 July 2016 (UTC)

veterinarian vs veterinary surgeon[edit]

The OED claims that veterinarian is American English, while veterinary surgeon is British English. Is this true? ---> Tooironic (talk) 04:39, 18 July 2016 (UTC)

  • Yes, I believe so. veterinarian seems strange to my UK ears. SemperBlotto (talk) 05:02, 18 July 2016 (UTC)
  • I've certainly never heard anything but veterinarian here in the US. I would have expected a veterinary surgeon to be strictly someone who specializes in performing surgery on animals, not a general practitioner. On a similar note, doctors in the US have offices, not surgeries. Chuck Entz (talk) 05:56, 18 July 2016 (UTC)
  • We tend to use the term vet for short in Br. English, but veterinarian sounds very American to me. DonnanZ (talk) 07:44, 18 July 2016 (UTC)
Vets needn't be confined to surgeries, some also visit farms, stables and attend race meetings at racecourses. DonnanZ (talk) 07:55, 18 July 2016 (UTC)
As I remember, on All Creatures Great and Small the farmers often addressed the vets as "vet'n'ry", so maybe veterinary by itself can be used colloquially as a noun in some varieties of British English. —Aɴɢʀ (talk) 09:00, 18 July 2016 (UTC)
That was set in rural Yorkshire in the 1930s, so maybe it's a term local to there. DonnanZ (talk) 09:41, 18 July 2016 (UTC)
We always just say vet. I sometimes get very confused watching US programs when they talk about looking after vets because to me those are doctors who look after animals. I couldn't really tell you which is the full form of 'vet' for a British English speaker, nor do I care. Renard Migrant (talk) 17:46, 18 July 2016 (UTC)
"looking after vets" - short for veterans? DonnanZ (talk) 17:50, 18 July 2016 (UTC)
Yes. In American English, vet is short for both veteran and veterinarian. You have to use context (or the unclipped term) to distinguish them. —Aɴɢʀ (talk) 17:57, 18 July 2016 (UTC)
I agree with Chuck, although I'm fairly sure I have heard veterinary surgeon in the US, with the meaning Chuck describes. --WikiTiki89 18:32, 18 July 2016 (UTC)
I, too, agree with Chuck's report on US usage of veterinarian and veterinary surgeon also with Angr report of polysemic vet. DCDuring TALK 18:39, 18 July 2016 (UTC)
  • A search for "vetinaries" and phrases like "The veterinary looked"/"The veterinary came" finds a lot of hits in both British and American journals up to around 1930, when it suddenly disappears on both sides of the Atlantic. Smurrayinchester (talk) 10:58, 19 July 2016 (UTC)


I'm wondering if the third definition – "A Muslim imam" – is correct? I looked it up in my Oxford Dictionary back home and it wasn't listed, neither was it mentioned on Dictionary.com. I was always under the impression that "pastor"/"shepherd" as a spiritual leader was kind of a Christian thing, I could be wrong though. Has anyone seen, read or heard of pastor being used to describe an imam? --Robbie SWE (talk) 19:08, 18 July 2016 (UTC)

Doesn't seem obvious from a quick look at Google books. It should be RFVed. DTLHS (talk) 19:11, 18 July 2016 (UTC)
It's definitely a Christian term, but these are sometimes -- in a doubtful way -- applied to Islam. Compare evangelicalism, in which the doubtfulness is even more striking. (If attestable, it should probably be labelled "by extension", "by analogy", or "sometimes also", or something, in order to show that this not within the original and predominant sense of the word.) Kolmiel (talk) 20:26, 18 July 2016 (UTC)
A pastor is a Christian rabbi. That would make an imam a Muslim Christian-rabbi. Everything depends on your own perspective. I don't think we need these kinds of analogical definitions even if they are attestable. --WikiTiki89 20:36, 18 July 2016 (UTC)
Fine by me :) I just mean, if we have it it should at least be labelled. Kolmiel (talk) 20:51, 18 July 2016 (UTC)
It's POV-pushing by a known (and blocked) POV-pusher. - -sche (discuss) 21:12, 18 July 2016 (UTC)

pluo, pluit[edit]

We have one lemma with two different lemma entries. We should choose one and turn the other into a form-of entry. —CodeCat 00:30, 19 July 2016 (UTC)

Hyphenated fractions as adjectives[edit]

one-fifth, two-fifths, and many others. I don't know how these would be used as adjectives. "It was two-fifths of the whole" seems more like a noun. Any examples of clearly adjectival use? DTLHS (talk) 00:33, 19 July 2016 (UTC)

It's not uncommon to drop the "of a" when fractions are used to modify measure words in recipes, etc., though measures used in recipes are based on multiple of 1/2 and 1/3, not 1/5 (unless you're adding a lot of liquor...). Maybe that's what the entry is getting at. Chuck Entz (talk) 02:24, 19 July 2016 (UTC)
I would think that they would be used just as half#Adjective is used. DCDuring TALK 02:26, 19 July 2016 (UTC)
I'm not really sure that half or any of the hyphenated fractions (or terms such as one percent) are true adjectives, rather than being nouns sometimes used attributively. DCDuring TALK 02:30, 19 July 2016 (UTC)
That makes sense... I didn't think of usages like this:
1888, The Northwestern Reporter, volume 35:
It provides for the sale of four-fifths of certain land, while the mortgagor owned only two-fifths, and the decree was so drawn as to lead to an inference that the intention was that a two-fifths interest belonging to the plaintiff should be sold in connection with the mortgagor's interest.
But like you said this could be considered attributive use. DTLHS (talk) 02:35, 19 July 2016 (UTC)


I missed seeing entry number 4,750,000 to add to Wiktionary:Milestones. Any ideas? SemperBlotto (talk) 20:15, 19 July 2016 (UTC)

  • Wait for 5,000,000? DCDuring TALK 20:48, 19 July 2016 (UTC)
I nominate pangngalan, since it seems to be around the right number and it wasn't created by a bot. DTLHS (talk) 20:51, 19 July 2016 (UTC)
That will do. SemperBlotto (talk) 04:30, 20 July 2016 (UTC)
How many entries are in a mile? --WikiTiki89 21:13, 19 July 2016 (UTC)
Currently 250,000 - we increase the number from time to time. SemperBlotto (talk) 04:30, 20 July 2016 (UTC)


Surprisingly this wasn't coined until around 1850. Can anyone find citations earlier than 1849, specifically the "Month. Rev." that the dictionary is citing? DTLHS (talk) 20:53, 19 July 2016 (UTC)

  • 1839, Franz Karl Naegele, “The Obliquely Contracted Pelvis: Containing Also an Appendix of the Most Important Defects of the Female Pelvis”, in (Please provide the title of the work):
    I mentioned it publicly in my earlier lectures as well as at the meeting of the society of Natural Science and Therapy November 24th, 18321 and also — in order to learn the opinions of others — in my lecture on the 23rd of September, 1834
    1Heidelb. Jahrb. d. Lit. 1832, No. 12.
This would seem to indicate that the translators could expect therapy to be understood, at least in the specialty readership of such a monograph, as translating its German equivalent Therapie, which had apparently been in use since the previous century. DCDuring TALK 21:30, 19 July 2016 (UTC)
I think that wasn't translated until 1939, based on the title page. DTLHS (talk) 21:31, 19 July 2016 (UTC)
Indeed: "newly translated".
therapia seems to have been in abundant use, including in many book titles, in medical Latin works for quite some time. Therapeutic has a much longer history in English, where I found it in Monthly Review of July 1758. DCDuring TALK 21:51, 19 July 2016 (UTC)

Problems with the French 'que' page[edit]

There are mistakes for 'ne ... que' (French for 'only') on https://fr.wiktionary.org/wiki/que#Adverbe_2 and https://en.wiktionary.org/wiki/que#Conjunction_3

The most serious problem is that the French page classes it an Adverb, but the English a Conjunction. Can someone please correct them?

HF and AC[edit]

I've seen some boxes of plastic glasses whose lens colors were described as: "HF Green 2.0", "HF Green 3.0", "AC Green 2.0", "AC Green 3.0", "HF Amber", "AC Amber", "HF Smoke", "AC Smoke", etc.

Without opening the boxes and checking the glasses, what do HF and AC probably mean in this case?
--Daniel Carrero (talk) 01:35, 21 July 2016 (UTC)

   Likely you speak of tinted corrective lenses, as 2.0 and 3.0 are over-the-counter degrees of correction in reading glasses (especially for aging eyes). You can find (clear) .5, 1.0, and 2.0 as drugstore glasses including @ Walmart, and i happened to find a set of 3.0's that suit me slightly better in a European pharmacy.
(At the risk of throwing in a red herring, i do note that H. F. AMBER, INC. exists, as does Ac Green Mortgage Modification [snicker].) I don't see anything at Wikipedia:AC and Wikipedia:HF, so those may be style codes, or initials of companies too boring to have WP articles.
--Jerzyt 07:03, 21 July 2016 (UTC)
HF lenses would be "helical focus" in photography [8], but I doubt glasses have the same kinds of lens. Equinox 08:46, 22 July 2016 (UTC)
HF means "half frame" SemperBlotto (talk) 08:56, 22 July 2016 (UTC)
Then AC is probably an acetate frame. Equinox 08:59, 22 July 2016 (UTC)
Simple Google searches ("HF half-frame" and "AC Acetate frame") make those seem likely. DCDuring TALK 10:14, 22 July 2016 (UTC)
That's how I found it (but I had to dig around, because there were quite a few false positives too). Do you reckon I could get paid for doing Google searches for people? Equinox 17:12, 22 July 2016 (UTC)


I believe we should change this and any other entries to Old English words with the ð character to have the þ character since that seems more widely used, and it seems impractical to have to "guess" whether to input a Ð or a Þ looking for a word.—This unsigned comment was added by (talk) at 04:46, 21 July 2016‎.

   Here are the entries for the 4 chars mentioned: ð, þ, Ð, Þ.
   98...'s proposal sounds like a wild guess by someone who doesn't realize that redirects from variant spellings to preferred spellings should be able to deal with the problems of users who are in the dark about the unfamiliar characters; in some cases it may be that Dab pages will be needed to guide them with hints about which confusion-prone spellings are associated with which meanings.
--Jerzyt 09:25, 21 July 2016 (UTC)

scare up[edit]

   I've discussed, on that verb's talk page, my reasoning for introducing, after

To find or procure something ...

the new wording

while relying on chance to provide the means

and i hope the change will deserve colleagues' attention, whether positive or negative.
--Jerzyt 06:25, 21 July 2016 (UTC)


Can a pest be a plant (e.g. an invasive plant species)? Wikipedia seems to think so, but both Wiktionary and the OED define pests as creatures and insects/animals respectively. ---> Tooironic (talk) 06:51, 21 July 2016 (UTC)

  • Yes. The OED has "Any animal, esp. an insect, that attacks or infests crops, livestock, stored goods, etc. Also (less commonly): a plant that is an invasive weed." SemperBlotto (talk) 10:04, 21 July 2016 (UTC)

Empty bulleted line appears in Mobile view but not Desktop?[edit]

On multiple pages in sections such as References and Readings, a bulleted line that is empty of text appears in Mobile view but not Desktop view. If global, would this be fixable by bot?

* {{template}} renders in Desktop view:

  • 1
  • 2
  • 3

In Mobile view:

  • 1
  • 2
  • 3

To see an actual example of thsee results, toggle between the two views (using the link at the very bottom of each view) for this archived revision of 囟 and compare Chinese § References, where I removed *, and Japanese § Readings, where I did not.

See my recent history for more examples, especially my edit summaries at Revision history of "囟".

Please verify this in each view on a desktop or laptop computer. My desktop computer, alas, is broken, so when I have been verifying this for the Desktop view, I have been using Chrome for Android, a mobile platform, on a Samsung phone. I don't see why that would matter, but just in case...

Side question: Where in Wikimedia would I go to report other issues that affect mobile editing on both WT & WP?

Thanks! --Geekdiva (talk) 10:12, 21 July 2016 (UTC)

It looks like a browser- or OS-specific issue, because I did not see the problem occur when I viewed the pre-edited version of the page using an iPhone. Technical issues that relate to Wikimedia generally should be reported using the Phabricator. — SMUconlaw (talk) 11:21, 21 July 2016 (UTC)


For the Particle part of speech: 1. Is "vocative" a sufficient explanation? Many slightly older books use it the same way we would use "oh" today, e.g. when somebody falls and hurts himself. 2. The usage notes say that the word is not strictly archaic. Who says? It looks very old-fashioned to me, and I think it needs a gloss. Equinox 08:41, 22 July 2016 (UTC)

As I read it, you (and the entry) seem to be suggesting that the vocative sense and the "Oh" sense are the same etymology. Is that right? I would expect to see the "Oh" sense classified as "Exclamation", not "Particle". 23:04, 24 July 2016 (UTC)


Is Atatürk really a proper noun meaning the "father of the Turkish people", or is it just a name that Mustafa Kemal Atatürk coined for himself? I feel like this is like defining Johnson as a proper noun with the meaning "son of John". --WikiTiki89 15:57, 22 July 2016 (UTC)

We have both Il Duce and Führer. So Atatürk should be acceptable is a specific title carried by a single person if we allow such thing. Korn [kʰũːɘ̃n] (talk) 14:57, 23 July 2016 (UTC)
I think it should be allowed, too. Although "the Führer" was the leader of a "Führerstaat", which was considered the proper Germanic form of government. So in theory Hitler should have been replaced with another Führer (führer?) after his death. That might be a difference. Kolmiel (talk) 10:37, 24 July 2016 (UTC)
Just to clarify, I'm not complaining about the inclusion of the word, but about the definition. Also, Atatürk was not his title but his surname. --WikiTiki89 16:23, 24 July 2016 (UTC)
@User:Wikitiki89: Good catch. As far as this is a proper noun, it is a designation for Mustafa Kemal Atatürk. The definition--"Predecessor or father of the Turkish people"--is wrong and needs a correction. --Dan Polansky (talk) 16:44, 24 July 2016 (UTC)


Keeps getting added as Anglo Norman, with incomprehensible formatting. Is there a real entry possible here? DTLHS (talk) 23:53, 22 July 2016 (UTC)

This idiot keeps adding a factoid about an Anglo-Norman name and its similarity to an Old English one to every entry even remotely spelled like this- even Old Irish, Sardinian and Vietnamese! My guess is that it's someone (they consistently geolocate to Colombia) who's obsessed with proving that their name has nothing to do with cows and who has no clue about language headers or language codes. I'll have to see if I can come up with an edit filter. Chuck Entz (talk) 02:22, 23 July 2016 (UTC)

ginger (redheaded person)[edit]

Someone said on Facebook that the term 'ginger' for a redhead goes back to Southpark of all things. Clearly bollocks. Can anyone be bothered to check when the redhead term originated? OED might have a date for it, but I'm not a subscriber. Many thanks. Renard Migrant (talk) 12:25, 23 July 2016 (UTC)

It seems to have originally been used to refer to cocks, and only later to people. Etymonline is usually good for a free summary. —Μετάknowledgediscuss/deeds 12:47, 23 July 2016 (UTC)
I think "ginger" as a noun referring to a redhead (as in "He's a ginger") was virtually unknown in American English until it was popularized by South Park. I can't say whether it was used that way in British English before that, but I suspect it was. (South Park also introduced Americans to the word minge, which was previously unknown in the States.) —Aɴɢʀ (talk) 16:20, 23 July 2016 (UTC)
The adjective "ginger" describing "red" hair is common in Britain, and long predates South Park. The noun, "a ginger", meaning a redhead, is not common here in my experience. To me it is essentially unknown, though I would guess the meaning if I did hear it. 21:06, 24 July 2016 (UTC)
The OED has this noun sense- "A cock with reddish plumage; also, a red-haired or sandy-haired person." with an example (of person) from 1885. SemperBlotto (talk) 20:32, 23 July 2016 (UTC)
Easy disproof using only recent popular culture: Geri Halliwell was known as Ginger Spice before South Park even started. --Florian Blaschke (talk) 15:28, 26 July 2016 (UTC)
We're talking about the noun, though. I remember hearing it at my secondary school in the 1990s, derisively pronounced with two hard /g/ sounds — probably not usual. Equinox 15:32, 26 July 2016 (UTC)
I did notice the nonstandard pronunc in our entry. The term we had was ginner (i.e. [ˈdʒɪ.nə]). Renard Migrant (talk) 15:50, 26 July 2016 (UTC)
I never realized until now that red hair is a totally different color than the ginger root and so the origin of this term is not as obvious as I thought. --WikiTiki89 15:33, 26 July 2016 (UTC)

God Almighty[edit]

is a mistranslation Talk:God Almighty. Lysdexia (talk) 22:22, 23 July 2016 (UTC)

Which says "A mistranslation of -èl shaddæ which really means "hillish god", a god of earth/ore/war equivalent to ares/mars/tiw, but -ijjob usually didn't even qualify that with "god"." The last group of editors the Hebrew Bible got were monotheists, and when their output said אֵל שַׁדַּי they did not mean "hillish god". It's not a mistranslation; it may be a translation of the post-exile Jewish interpretation and edit of the Bible, which may be a misinterpretation and rewriting of the originals, but then you start to get into hairy questions of the "meaning" of the text. Anything we say on this should be nuanced and cited; it is certainly not a simple "mistranslation". --Prosfilaes (talk) 20:09, 25 July 2016 (UTC)
Well, Hebrew speakers have been consistently translating it into other languages as something meaning "Almighty" since the first known translation, the Greek Septuagint, which is well over 2,000 years old. Was it understood that way when it was first written down? We'll never know. I suspect that the etymology of the term was long forgotten by then, but that's just an educated guess.
Knowing the etymology of a term is better than nothing, but it usually leads you astray as a translation aid: although you can trace nice back to a Latin word meaning "ignorant", I would translate it into French as gentil, not ignorant. Unless you're translating something from several centuries ago, the latter choice would be dangerously incorrect. Also, "hillish" is pretty silly: it strongly implies that what it refers to resembles hills or mountains, rather than being associated with them.
Besides, the similarity to the Akkadian word could be a coincidence, and the origin could be something that's been lost. If I had to guess, I'd go with your etymology- but it would still be a guess. Who knows- in 50 years that etymology could be considered just as wrong as the one that derived the name from the Hebrew word for breast, and claimed that the term refers to God's feminine side. Chuck Entz (talk) 02:52, 26 July 2016 (UTC)
I would more likely say that we simply don't know the origin, rather than connecting it to Akkadian. The Akkadian origin does not seem any more appealing than a native Hebrew origin whose details we don't know. Trying to bring polytheism into this doesn't make much sense either, because Exodus 6:2-3 make it pretty clear that the three names used in those two verses all refer to the same G-d. --WikiTiki89 15:23, 26 July 2016 (UTC)

custom/logic/tradition dictates[edit]

We seem to be missing a definition at dictate for "custom/logic/tradition dictates that...". The first sense is below standard, too. --Turnedlessef (talk) 22:39, 23 July 2016 (UTC)

Isn't this just sense 1 ("order, command, control")? — SMUconlaw (talk) 07:00, 24 July 2016 (UTC)
Perhaps, but that sense needs better wording anyways. --Turnedlessef (talk) 07:33, 24 July 2016 (UTC)
See {{sofixit}}. DCDuring TALK 14:20, 24 July 2016 (UTC)
Many other words can fit where custom/logic/tradition fit without altering the definition IMO, eg, hope, experience, love, hatred, geometry. DCDuring TALK 14:25, 24 July 2016 (UTC)
I assume he wants suggestions on how to word it. I agree that the definition is either inadequate or lacking, but I'm not sure how I would word it either. Andrew Sheedy (talk) 21:20, 24 July 2016 (UTC)
Yes, I do want suggestions, especially how to word it without those slashes. MackyBlue11 (talk) 02:07, 25 July 2016 (UTC)

sweets (candy, cookies, cake, etc.) is British-only?[edit]

Not according to this American. I removed the label. I think the same should apply to sweet (singular) = a cookie, a piece of candy, cake, etc. Benwing2 (talk) 21:05, 24 July 2016 (UTC)

As a Brit, I wouldn't describe cookies or cake as sweets in the candy sense, although cake can be sense 3 of sweet (i.e. a dessert course). Keith the Koala (talk) 18:43, 26 July 2016 (UTC)
Agreed. Sweets are things like toffees, lemon drops, pineapple cubes (I mean the sugary kind, not actual lumps of fresh fruit), and chocolate bars — not cookies and cakes. "Sweet" for dessert feels like a qualitatively different sense. Equinox 19:37, 26 July 2016 (UTC)
Hmm. "Can I see the sweet menu" sounds strange to me, we'd say "dessert" in place of it. But it's perfectly OK to say "I like sweets" referring to confections in general (cookies, candy, cake, ice cream, etc.), which correspond to the sorts of things eaten for dessert; although "sweets" in this sense doesn't include fruit even though fruit is often eaten for dessert. Usually we would say "sweets" (plural) but we could also say "I have a craving for a sweet today". Not quite sure how to describe this properly. Is this usage also British? Benwing2 (talk) 00:30, 27 July 2016 (UTC)
I don't think so. In BrE, in the non-dessert sense, "I like sweets" does not include "cookies" (or biscuits as we call them here), cake or ice-cream. It only includes what is called "candy" in the US. In the dessert sense, which is much less likely in this sentence, it could conceivably include cake or ice-cream. 02:38, 27 July 2016 (UTC)

thousand one, thousand and one, one thousand and one[edit]

thousand and one is automatically redirected to thousand one, which is totally foreign to British users. It prevents a British English label being added to a proper entry, which then can be given a redirection. Can this thoughtlessness be undone? DonnanZ (talk) 08:53, 25 July 2016 (UTC)

  • Yes check.svg Done Found out how to undo the redirect. DonnanZ (talk) 15:52, 26 July 2016 (UTC)

Additional connotations of fox in the sense of "attractive person"?[edit]

Does fox in the sense of "attractive person" have any additional connotations, such as a (hot or even explosive) temper, fierceness, sexual hunger, a predatory spirit? The citations aren't clear, but suggestive of the possibility that additional connotations associated with the animal (which include reddish hair) or with an "animal nature" could have influenced the choice, like, "rrrrr, she/he's a total fox, a wild thing, hot in every respect".

Also, in the spirit of KISS, how about replacing "man or woman" with "person" or "human"? (That would, incidentally, also be neatly inclusive of non-binary genders.) --Florian Blaschke (talk) 17:44, 25 July 2016 (UTC)

Chambers just has "an attractive young person, esp a woman". To me it suggests some kind of promiscuity (i.e. would not fit a modest and unexperienced virgin) but that may just be my own associations with the supposedly fierce and cunning animal. Equinox 09:45, 26 July 2016 (UTC)
JFTR: I know that connotations are not usually included in our dicdefs. This is rather a question out of personal curiosity, and I'm asking for personal opinions; I'm not sure if we can actually prove such implications. Though I guess psychologically, the tendency to read them into the use of the term are hard to avoid. Also compare vixen. --Florian Blaschke (talk) 15:19, 26 July 2016 (UTC)

Pronunciation of taffety[edit]

This is apparently an archaic spelling of the word taffeta, but I can't find anywhere whether it was pronounced the same way or if it's pronounced as it looks. Does anyone know where I might be able to find the pronunciation for this term? 2WR1 (talk) 23:48, 25 July 2016 (UTC)

Webster's Third New International and Kenyon and Knott both say taffety is pronounced with a final /i/. —Aɴɢʀ (talk) 12:13, 26 July 2016 (UTC)
@Angr: Okay, great, thank you! 2WR1 (talk) 16:27, 30 July 2016 (UTC)

later on has no definition[edit]

Some relevant information can be found here.--Anareth (talk) 13:01, 26 July 2016 (UTC)

And no earlier on, these seem like genuine entries to me. Objections? Renard Migrant (talk) 14:48, 26 July 2016 (UTC)
I don't object to the entries, but what is it that on adds to either earlier or later? I don't think that what it adds is strictly semantic. Is it prosodic? Or what? DCDuring TALK 18:40, 26 July 2016 (UTC)
I think that the forms with "on" always link related events e.g. "It rained and later on snowed". The forms without "on" can do the same, but don't always. SemperBlotto (talk) 05:17, 27 July 2016 (UTC)

anta (Italian)[edit]

Any citations for the Italian sense under etymology 2, derived from the ending of quaranta, etc? I've never heard it.

Incidentally, this cannot be a heteronym unless the words are pronounced differently. Since neither word has an accent on the final "a", the pronunciations must be identical as "a" has only one sound in Italian. I have removed this category label. — 14:15, 27 July 2016 (UTC)


I disagree with diff. The entry iron is the most obvious place to look for these translations, not the much more obscure term ferrous. —CodeCat 16:36, 27 July 2016 (UTC)

Seconded. Benwing2 (talk) 23:08, 27 July 2016 (UTC)
Ferrous does not mean "made of iron". One of its meanings is "containing iron". I find the idea of calling Margaret Thatcher the "Ferrous Lady" amusing though. DCDuring TALK 23:56, 27 July 2016 (UTC)
Our definition is "of or containing iron" so theoretically it could mean "made of iron" if not used in chemistry. But I agree with CodeCat, words like Russian железный ‎(železnyj) are most naturally translated as simply "iron". Benwing2 (talk) 00:05, 28 July 2016 (UTC)
It is foolish to rely on our definitions as authoritative about actual English. Many of the dictionaries in OneLook are better. The OED is better yet, if one has convenient access. DCDuring TALK 00:27, 28 July 2016 (UTC)
I was about to bring this up ion relation to stone#Adjective. I don't think "made of stone" (or made of iron) is adjectival but it's complicated by the existence of other adjectival definitions. Furthermore nouns used attributively can have adjectival translations, and iron is a particularly good example. The thing is, at what stage do we include things that don't exist just to include translations. железный ‎(železnyj) translates as iron#Noun used attributively, but is itself an adjective. Renard Migrant (talk) 11:28, 29 July 2016 (UTC)
Where does it end? Do we have be tall to accommodate Chinese , which is a verb, or have mercy on to accommodate Ancient Greek ἐλεέω, or speak Cahuilla to accommodate the Cahuilla translation, which is a single word? Other languages are structured differently, and we can't reflect all of those structures in our English entries. Chuck Entz (talk) 17:32, 29 July 2016 (UTC)
In cases where we want to have other languages' adjectives for "made of iron" hosted in iron, but iron does not seem to be an adjective in English, DCDuring and I tried a couple of alternative ideas in 2011: either merge them into the noun translation table with a note (as in cork), or give them their own translation table in the noun section (as in brass; Ctrl+F "attributive" in both entries to find the relevant bits, with the translations tables expanded). - -sche (discuss) 03:25, 30 July 2016 (UTC)
I think either of those is a good solution. But we do also have to resign ourselves to the fact that not every non-English word is going to be able to be listed in the translation section of some English word. Wiktionary is very good at being an English dictionary, and it's very good at being an X-to-English dictionary for any other language X, but its design simply won't let it be a good English-to-X dictionary. —Aɴɢʀ (talk) 06:40, 30 July 2016 (UTC)

Should overpopulated have two etymologies?[edit]

The user Britannic124 insists that the adjective and the verb originated independently, therefore they should be under the separate etymology sections. But they have the same root. So should there be two etymologies? Are there any other examples like this? 23:51, 27 July 2016 (UTC)

For reference: the two etymologies appear to be over- + populated, and overpopulate + -ed. I believe it makes logical sense to have both, since those are genuinely distinct formations, though it makes the entry look a bit unwieldy. Equinox 00:08, 28 July 2016 (UTC)
In this case the semantics seem to clearly support two etymologies.
In other cases an adjective ending in ed (or ing) predates the verb, which might be considered a back-formation, which is an even stronger argument for distinct etymologies. DCDuring TALK 00:54, 28 July 2016 (UTC)
I treat different parts of speech as different etymologies in pretty much all cases, and always separate lemmas from nonlemmas. —CodeCat 01:00, 28 July 2016 (UTC)


Should the third sense of lousy be moved to lousy with for "we don't need any more X, we're already lousy with X"? RJFJR (talk) 00:30, 28 July 2016 (UTC)

Some would look the usage up at [[lousy]], so I don't think we should get rid of that. Most dictionaries have the usage at lousy, with at least a usage example containing with. Two OneLook references have lousy with, but as a run-in. One idiom dictionary has lousy with as an entry. We could also have [[lousy with]] either as a full entry or a hard redirect (which I prefer). DCDuring TALK 00:47, 28 July 2016 (UTC)
There was a suggestion a little while ago to include collications among the definitions with a "see (term)" kind of sense. —CodeCat 01:01, 28 July 2016 (UTC)
I don't really see how this differs from being packed, stuffed, bursting, etc. "with". Equinox 01:12, 28 July 2016 (UTC)
It doesn't. It's just a question of whether some folks will search for "lousy with", in which case they will get what they want faster. DCDuring TALK 02:04, 28 July 2016 (UTC)
I can't see any advantages. Would fail WT:CFI#Idiomaticity and I can't imagine anyone looking it up. If you don't know what "we don't need any more X, we're already lousy with X" means you look up the word or words you don't understand, you don't look them up in pairs. Renard Migrant (talk) 11:24, 29 July 2016 (UTC)
By having so many MWEs for metaphors, similes, collocations, and phrasal verbs that don't feel much like non-SoP idioms, we are training users to look things up that way. I have heard folks hear claim (without evidence or cited authority) that 'chunks' are the units in which we learn language.
To the extent we are willing to recognize that we are competing with other references, to the extent that idiom dictionaries are among our competitors, and to the extent that we wish to actively compete for users, we should have an entry (or redirect) for lousy with because idiom dictionaries have entries for such terms. DCDuring TALK 12:28, 29 July 2016 (UTC)

Contributions by User:MahiraYT[edit]

Some of these seem rather dubious or even downright incorrect. They added an Old English translation for "etymology" and an Old Church Slavonic translation for "Serbo-Croatian". If they're making these kinds of edits, it puts everything they do in doubt. —CodeCat 01:04, 30 July 2016 (UTC)

I think they're just taking words from different Wikipedias, without knowing if they are actually native words. DTLHS (talk) 01:13, 30 July 2016 (UTC)
From the messages they sent me and Chuck about this, I gather that they don't understand CFI. —CodeCat 16:47, 30 July 2016 (UTC)
Old Church Slavonic, like Latin, is still in use as a liturgical language. I have a Yup’ik acquaintance in Curyung, Alaska, who is the priest of a Russian Orthodox Church there (usually preferred by the indigenous Alaskan peoples), and he speaks Old Church Slavonic, Yup’ik, and English, as do most of his congregation (at least passively). As a result of its continued use, the language develops terms for modern technology and vocabulary. —Stephen (Talk) 18:22, 30 July 2016 (UTC)
I think you're confusing OCS with CS. CS isn't a single language though, but rather the local language "archaified" a bit. —CodeCat 18:36, 30 July 2016 (UTC)
You’re right, the liturgical language is Old Slavic, as opposed to OCS. What I found states that the Russian recension was developed after the 10th century on the basis of the earlier Bulgarian recensions, from which it differed only slightly. Its main features are: substitution of the nasal sound ǫ with [u]; and merging of letters ě and ja. So it does differ a little from OCS, but just barely. Based only on this small description, it sounds to me as though the difference is similar to the difference between British English and American English. My Alaskan connection has sent me some bits of literature and a calendar, and I’ve started looking for them, but so far I can’t find where I put them. I would like to take another look to see if I can find differences, now that I know that there are differences. —Stephen (Talk) 19:51, 30 July 2016 (UTC)
The differences are a little bit more substantial, mainly in terms of spelling. The yers are dropped except word-finally, and there's vocabulary differences to match the local language. It's a bit like Medieval Latin versus Classical Latin, but spoken in a local "accent" with local words and a little bit of local grammar too. Imagine they had kept speaking Medieval Latin to the people in churches of Romance areas, but made it a bit more like the local language so people could still follow. —CodeCat 20:12, 30 July 2016 (UTC)
It means the local languages of that time, like 1100 years ago...not the local languages today. The differences between the languages were small then. The Old Russian language (Old East Slavic) was considered a dialect of OCS and they were mutually intelligible. —Stephen (Talk) 20:28, 30 July 2016 (UTC)
The theory is irrelevant. What matters is whether the words are attestable with that meaning. Also, OES was not a dialect of OCS, they were simply related languages with a high degree of mutual intelligibility. --WikiTiki89 14:17, 1 August 2016 (UTC)
It is not so cut and dried as that. Horace Lunt, in On the Relationship of Old Church Slavonic to the Written Language of Early Rus’, 1987, proposed that Old East Slavic and Old Church Slavonic be viewed as two variants of Late Common Slavic. You can deny that they are dialects if you want, but I consider them dialects of one language. And the thing that makes the theory relevant is that in CodeCat’s view, OCS and the Russian recension were petrified over a thousand years ago, and therefore attestations must be limited to that ancient time; while I believe that the languages/dialects are still in liturgical use and, like Latin, and are still spoken today and include some modern vocabulary, including words for Serbo-Croatian. —Stephen (Talk) 05:33, 2 August 2016 (UTC)
I don't care about dialects vs. languages, so I'm ok with saying that OES and OCS are dialects of Late Common Slavic. What I'm not ok with is saying that OES is a dialect of OCS. That would be like saying that American English is a dialect of British English. But the reason I say all this is irrelevant is that it doesn't matter whether these languages could or couldn't have a word for "etymology" or "Serbo-Croatian", what matters is whether they do or they don't, which is a verifiable fact that does not require debating the theory. --WikiTiki89 15:31, 2 August 2016 (UTC)


The entry says that the singular "paparazzi" is nonstandard, but almost every usage I see in English (which is not the same language as Italian) uses "paparazzi" in the singular form, while both "paparazzi" and "paparazzis" are used for plural. The entry seems to confuse the language in question making Italian grammar rules override actual English language borrowing. Shouldn't English language borrowings use the form used in the English language, instead of the form used in the language of origin, since English isn't Italian? -- 11:56, 30 July 2016 (UTC)

There is no written rule. It usually depends on who uses the word. In the case of paparazzi, most of the users are journalists, actors, directors, photographers, etc., and they have a tendency to adopt the spellings, pronunciation, diacritics, and plurals used by the language of origin. —Stephen (Talk) 18:13, 30 July 2016 (UTC)


The plural of the french word landau should be landaus instead of the expected landaux. But for some reason the page for landaux exists. Should this be deleted or something? 2WR1 (talk) 16:31, 30 July 2016 (UTC)

@SemperBlotto: Thanks! 2WR1 (talk) 06:25, 12 August 2016 (UTC)


For the page déjeusner there are automatically generated pronunciations given in the conjugation chart, however these do not take into account that the s should be silent and so are all incorrect. Is there any way to just remove the pronunciations from the chart? 2WR1 (talk) 16:42, 30 July 2016 (UTC)

See WT:Grease pit/2016/July for my comments. Benwing2 (talk) 17:46, 30 July 2016 (UTC)
@Benwing2: I see what you're talking about, but it doesn't seem to fix the problem. 2WR1 (talk) 00:06, 31 July 2016 (UTC)

'grenouille' gender[edit]

I've added the gender of 'grenouille' to the article on this word. This was inspired by looking up the word and not being told. I could have found it by following a link or looking for the word on French Wiki. But unsophisticated wiki users might not think of it (I'm not all that sophisticated myself).

If this is contrary to a general policy which had been fully thrashed out and decided, perhaps some kind person could reverse my edit = and point me in the direction of the discussion?Twr57 (talk) 21:08, 30 July 2016 (UTC)

Thanks, but it was already there, directly underneath the Noun header: the letter "f" for feminine. This is the standard way of doing it with our templates. Equinox 21:13, 30 July 2016 (UTC)

Thanks for pointing this out, and reversing the otiose edit. Apologies for giving you the trouble!Twr57 (talk) 21:25, 30 July 2016 (UTC)


Can conjunctions really even have plural forms? Should we modify the definition to say "same as albeit, but tends to match more with plural circumstances" or something? (I'm bad with wording things...) Philmonte101 (talk) 13:39, 31 July 2016 (UTC)

It does seem odd. "Albethey" (first time I've ever seen it!) seems to be intended to mean "although they be...", which isn't a plural as such. Equinox 14:16, 31 July 2016 (UTC)
See albe in The Century Dictionary, The Century Co., New York, 1911. Spenser had "albe they". Google n-grams shows no usage of "albe they" or "albethey". DCDuring TALK 14:42, 31 July 2016 (UTC)
Our etymology seems overlong and tendentious. OTOH, I hope we don't have a role in starting a trend favoring usage of this. Albeit is bad enough. DCDuring TALK 14:46, 31 July 2016 (UTC)
Yes, we should modify the entry in the manner you suggest. The user who created it also created subaudi with subaudite as a plural form of it, but I suggested a better presentation on Talk:subaudi. - -sche (discuss) 18:04, 31 July 2016 (UTC)
Thanks for discussing. I also wanted to add that, as DCDuring is saying, we've given bots false info on other Wiktionaries. The examples put are ar:albethey, da:albethey (but this wasn't a bot, that was me some years ago), and my:albethey. Perhaps we should contact users of those other Wiktionaries about this, though it's probably not (nearly) the first time a false bot entry has happened. Philmonte101 (talk) 18:19, 31 July 2016 (UTC)
@DTLHS or anyone else, do you think it would be possible to find if there are any other English entries where a normally non-pluralizable part of speech is defined as the {{plural of}}/{{en-irregular plural of}} something, or (if it would be easier to search for) any normally-non-pluralizable lemma that lists a plural on the headword line like albeit did? Would that be: any part of speech other than 'noun', 'proper noun', 'pronoun'? Or do other parts of speech regularly pluralize? Verbs maybe, except that most don't have plural forms separate from the lemmas. Conceivably some French-derived adjectives might have plural forms, but it might be interesting to have a list of them. I wouldn't expect adverbs or conjunctions to pluralize. - -sche (discuss) 18:20, 31 July 2016 (UTC)
Agreed with User:-sche. I think we should find entries like this somehow and edit them to the way they should be. (if it were me, I'd also search for adjective or verb or etc. plurals in English, in case of mistakes with that) Philmonte101 (talk) 18:29, 31 July 2016 (UTC)
@-sche OK, I can check for the headings ['Adjective', 'Adverb', 'Conjunction', 'Determiner', 'Interjection', 'Morpheme', 'Numeral', 'Particle', 'Phrase', 'Postposition', 'Preposition', 'Verb'] at l3 or l4. Any more? DTLHS (talk) 18:43, 31 July 2016 (UTC)
Not that I can think of, except maybe — should we check for prefixes/suffixes? Or do they validly pluralize often? Thank you, in any case. - -sche (discuss) 19:23, 31 July 2016 (UTC)
@-sche User:DTLHS/cleanup/English pos with plural of I can look for affixes if you want, which would pick up things like -a. DTLHS (talk) 19:42, 31 July 2016 (UTC)
Oh, right; I suppose suffixes which are listed as "plural of" are probably fine, then, like -a is. Thanks for the list. The alchemical terms are indeed just nouns, as Phil points out, and it was good to catch them. notate bene seems like the same kind of thing as subaudite, and et seqq. and operibus citatis seems like the same kind of thing as that or as pp. vs p.. - -sche (discuss) 21:02, 31 July 2016 (UTC)
@ User:DTLHS, I fixed a few of these. turn coats was only a typo, and philosophers of fire is actually a noun as well. Although, with the numeral I can see why one would make that mistake. Perhaps we should discuss each of these terms separately other than the 4 that have been fixed. By the way, thanks a billion for creating this list. Philmonte101 (talk) 20:35, 31 July 2016 (UTC)
unvigintillions highlights something which I think has been discussed before but obviously not resolved: numbers like that can pluralize, but the plurals aren't always linked-to or mentioned on the singular pages, e.g. there's no link in billion to billions. - -sche (discuss) 21:14, 31 July 2016 (UTC)
Changed unvigintillions to have a noun heading. Reason: All numerals seem to have the capability of being used as nouns. But question, why don't we put noun headers in the numeral entries that say something like "This term can also be used as a noun." or something idk? Philmonte101 (talk) 04:12, 1 August 2016 (UTC)


I'm very curious about this word because 1) it is a Scrabble word 2) When I search for it I get noise, e.g. the Diatron company ...

From Google Book search I can find some references to it from around 1947 and 1953 but I think it has more history to it than this. It's something about electronics, vacuum tubes ... Purportedly it was "invented by" Irving Langmuir but some of his other inventions were disputed (he was more the popularizer). But so far I haven't run across anything that really specifies what a diatron is .... missing in wikipedia, google, and wiktionary, so my whole world view is crumbling here ...

I'm thinking possibly in the 1950s someone started using the word and soon other people started using it for various other things soon after, so maybe it never had a clear meaning. So then a reference should be available for the various uses, as clear as possible.

Seems like the beginning of a project, or else I am just missing the right sources (likely).

Are you sure it's an official Scrabble word, and not just something like Words With Friends, which is probably full of errors? What's your exact source? I don't see it in the list (though mine might be a few years out of date). Anyway: words with -tron are usually physical devices like particle accelerators. I already tried researching this word when you posted it the other day, but could find nothing much. Equinox 00:38, 1 August 2016 (UTC)
Aha... I just checked Hasbro's official site here [9] and it defines diatron as "a circuitry design that uses diodes". Equinox 00:40, 1 August 2016 (UTC)

August 2016

defleaed - or deflead?[edit]

I get a lot of hits on Google for deflead, more than for defleaed, so can it be regarded as an alternative or a misspelling? DonnanZ (talk) 17:52, 1 August 2016 (UTC)

I don't get any for deflead at Google N-grams. DCDuring TALK 17:59, 1 August 2016 (UTC)
Make sure that each term is in quotes so Google doesn't "correct" you when you do this kind of search (exact spelling/form).
I get more pages at Google Books for defleaed (8) than for deflead (3). That would suggest that deflead might be an alternative valid spelling, but it would be necessary to examine the citations one by one. DCDuring TALK 18:05, 1 August 2016 (UTC)
I'm trying to think of other English verbs that end in "a", there can't be many. But on reflection, deflead looks wrong anyway. DonnanZ (talk) 18:16, 1 August 2016 (UTC)
English verbs that end in -a. --WikiTiki89 18:20, 1 August 2016 (UTC)
[EDIT CONFLICT] I see way more than 3 for deflead, but I used "deflea'd" in the Search Engine. Notwithstanding, none of the returns I saw contained the apostrophe. There was one as "de-flead" (on the actual book page) Leasnam (talk) 18:23, 1 August 2016 (UTC)
Some of those search terms don't qualify, like put to sea, but subpoena is given a hyphenated alternative here [10]. DonnanZ (talk) 18:29, 1 August 2016 (UTC)
You mean "apostrophe'd"? --WikiTiki89 19:01, 1 August 2016 (UTC)
Oops, yes. DonnanZ (talk) 19:06, 1 August 2016 (UTC)
The Oxford Guide to Style (2002) says: “Formerly ’d was added in place of -ed to nouns and verbs ending in a pronounced vowel sound: concertina’d one-idea’d dado’d mustachio’d ski’d ¶ This practice is now rare in British English, rarer still in US English, as the apostrophe’d result looks odder to a modern eye than the juxtaposition of vowels without it: subpoenaed shampooed hennaed shanghaied skied” Note that they ironically use the spelling apostrophe’d themselves, but perhaps that is a different case because the vowel happens to be e. --WikiTiki89 19:20, 1 August 2016 (UTC)
Deflea must be an exception though, coming from the noun flea, which has the same pronunciation as the verb flee, and the past of that is fled. Hmm. DonnanZ (talk) 20:52, 1 August 2016 (UTC)

country of origin[edit]

Some sense overlap and problems here. In particular, if it means "the country indicated on a label as being the country in which the goods were made", then the usage example "It says Made in Mexico. I wonder if that is the real country of origin" is nonsensical; it would mean someone is wondering about the label, which they can already see. Equinox 20:17, 1 August 2016 (UTC)

I feel like all the senses are SOP. --WikiTiki89 20:20, 1 August 2016 (UTC)
It's a lot like the many other words, phrases, and slogans that advertisers use that promise more to consumers than what the advertising regulators would hold the advertisers to. There is something lexical involved, bit it is more like word use in poetry than something we can readily deal with. DCDuring TALK 20:51, 1 August 2016 (UTC)

deidolize: why was it deleted?[edit]

I added it today, and it was deleted as a creative invention. The verb has been mentioned in printed sources at least 30 times, dating back to at least 1890. So why is it a creative invention? 06:37, 2 August 2016 (UTC)

I can't answer your question. I have restored it. DCDuring TALK 11:01, 2 August 2016 (UTC)
idealize and idolize don't mean the same thing though; i have fixed the definition. It also seems more common as de-idolize. Keith the Koala (talk) 11:15, 2 August 2016 (UTC)

wrong pronunciation (platypus)[edit]

The two audio samples do not match the corresponding IPA representations. --Anareth (talk) 09:48, 2 August 2016 (UTC)

I moved the American English sample beside the American English IPA. The other audio is Australian, so I'll leave another person who is more accustomed to Australian English to sort it out. Hillcrest98 (talk) 14:54, 2 August 2016 (UTC)

Doddle Etymology[edit]

It has always been my understanding that doddle is an English corruption of the Scots dialect "dawdle" as in "beating the English at curling is usually a dawdle". Or "thrashing the Scots at football is always a doddle".

traductor (Romanian entry)[edit]

I've stumbled upon a term that I'm having a hard time translating. The closest I've come to an accurate translation is transmitter, but I still feel that it's not as precise as it should be. Basically, Romanian Wiktionary (here) and DEX (here) – N.B. in Romanian – say that the definition of traductor is:

  • Device, technical system which establishes a correspondence between the measured values of a specific system and the characteristic values of another system – used in technology, electricity and telecommunication; (specifically) a device used in telegraphy to translate received electrical signal combinations into corresponding typographical characters.

Transponder, transducer and transductor all spring to mind, but I'm not that versed when it comes to technological terms. Does anyone have any ideas? Much obliged! --Robbie SWE (talk) 18:16, 2 August 2016 (UTC)

decoder? DTLHS (talk) 18:27, 2 August 2016 (UTC)
Well, we kind of already have decodor in Romanian which is somewhat of a perfect fit. But thanks though! --Robbie SWE (talk) 20:23, 2 August 2016 (UTC)
I think it's a demodulator. Equinox 00:56, 3 August 2016 (UTC)
After reading a definition it does sound right, however, we have demodulator in Romanian too. --Robbie SWE (talk) 09:14, 3 August 2016 (UTC)
translator, perhaps? In another Romance language, French, un traduction is a translation, from the verb traduire. yoyo (talk) 15:23, 22 August 2016 (UTC)
Here are the common English translations of Romanian traductor: translator, transcriber, detector, pick-up, transducer, transmitter, probe, gauge, sensing device, sensor. —Stephen (Talk) 15:52, 22 August 2016 (UTC)


Having five senses seems like overkill. Can we merge some of them? Also, it has been observed that this word is mainly used today to describe food, e.g. a sinful chocolate dessert. Equinox 00:35, 3 August 2016 (UTC)

I think 5 and 3 can be merged On second thought, I think 3 can be removed (?) does it ever mean "relating to sin" ? (e.g. one speaks of a "sin issue" not a "sinful issue") Then 4 & 5 can be grouped. Thoughts ? Leasnam (talk) 00:38, 3 August 2016 (UTC)
I agree with removing 3 and merging 4 and 5. But 1 and 2 also look as though they could be merged with 4 and 5; the only apparent difference is that some kinds of sin are prescribed by religion and some are not. I think two senses might cover it. Equinox 00:44, 3 August 2016 (UTC)
Sounds good to me Leasnam (talk) 00:48, 3 August 2016 (UTC)
I agree that this entry is repetitious. I don't really agree that the word is now mainly used to describe food. 02:28, 3 August 2016 (UTC)
How's this? - -sche (discuss) 02:44, 3 August 2016 (UTC)
lovely jubbly. Equinox 02:51, 3 August 2016 (UTC)


I have always pronounced the "g" in this word like "get". Is this wrong, or an Australian English variation? ---> Tooironic (talk) 03:15, 3 August 2016 (UTC)

To me it's a French word, like naive or café, and I pronounce it accordingly (having learned French at school, which might not be common or useful in Australia). My Chambers Dictionary (UK) does not allow a hard /g/. I've never heard anyone say it that way, but it's not a commonly spoken word. Equinox 03:17, 3 August 2016 (UTC)
I too have never heard it with a hard g. Other French words, like cognac, yes, but only humorously Leasnam (talk) 03:24, 3 August 2016 (UTC)
I've always pronounced it /pɔɪg.nənt/, even after learning French, and I'm fairly certain I've heard it pronounced that way more often than the standard pronunciation (I live in western Canada). That being said, I don't think I've heard it spoken very often. Andrew Sheedy (talk) 06:51, 3 August 2016 (UTC)
I have never heard it pronounced with a "g" like "get", and to me such a pronunciation sounds very wrong. 11:01, 3 August 2016 (UTC)
The American Heritage Dictionary, Dictionary.com's Random House Dictionary, the British and American Cambridge.org dictionaries, the British and American MacMillans, and oxforddictionaries.com's British dictionary have only /ˈpɔɪn.jənt/.
Collins English Dictionary (both on its own site, and when listed as Dictionary.com's 'British Dictionary') and oxforddictionaries.com's American dictionary give /ˈpɔɪ.nənt/ as an alternative (to /ˈpɔɪn.jənt/).
The 1914 Century Dictionary has only /ˈpɔɪ.nənt/ (in their system: poi'na̤nt, as compared to cogman kog'ma̤n, cognac kõ'nyak). On the other hand, Robert Nares' 1784 Elements of Orthoepy spells out that the 'g' is silent and an 'i' is introduced after the 'n', in imitation of the French pronunciation; intriguingly, he also says 'g' is pronounced (in his time) in diaphragm and paradigm, in contrast to phlegm where it is silent. (The 1886 Encyclopaedic Dictionary just says "g [is] silent".)
Merriam-Webster gives /ˈpɔɪn.jənt/ but says it can also "sometimes" be /ˈpɔɪ(ɡ).nənt/, but I've never heard it with a /ɡ/.
- -sche (discuss) 22:14, 3 August 2016 (UTC)
Since we have an Australian, a Canadian, and an American dictionary all saying they've heard /ɡ/, but no other dictionary lists it, I'd speculate that it might be a spelling pronunciation rather than a regional one. According to various websites, Laura Bush and Michelle Bachmann (who famously also mispronounce other words) pronounce the "g". - -sche (discuss) 22:27, 3 August 2016 (UTC)


There seems to be a noun sense of the Latin missus which we are missing from our entry;

A Frankish army, under the command of a reliable missus called Winigis, had been sent to Italy as a relief force to aid these Lombard rulers...
—Hywell Williams, Emperor of the West

However, I am not the right person to be adding a Latin entry. SpinningSpark 11:16, 4 August 2016 (UTC)

missus ‎(envoy). Late or Medieval Latin? DCDuring TALK 12:52, 4 August 2016 (UTC)
This made me wonder, at which point does substantivized usage of an adjective/participle warrant its own separate noun header? — Kleio (t · c) 09:39, 7 August 2016 (UTC)

"Privation" reverted, the reasoning?[edit]

I am concerned that I might have a big 'Revert This Guy's Edits' sign on my backside, as every edit I have made, regardless of my state of sobriety, lucidity, or self-apparent sanity whilst editing these entries seems to make any difference, and I cannot yet ascertain the reasons.

This last edit, on the entry for "privation" is of particular interest, as I followed the prevailing research (Bowlby, 1968) referred to the area of knowledge properly (I believe) and even tidied things up a bit, managing to include a link to the Wikipedia article on the same subject at the last minute just to be thorough.

So, may I have an explanation, please for the reversion?

Regards, RobbertMacGreighgor (talk) 14:46, 4 August 2016 (UTC)

I'd say the main reason is that the definitions you gave are too longwinded and include irrelevant details. A definition's job isn't to describe the referent in too much detail, but to give just the minimum of information to make it clear to the reader what the word refers to. —CodeCat 14:50, 4 August 2016 (UTC)
I agree that the definition in question was unncessarily lenghty, but a good definition might give a little more than "just the minimum of information to make it clear [...] what the word refers to". Methinks. And I think rather often our definitions are like that: they make it clear what the word refers to when I come across it in a text, but they don't enable me to use it correctly on my own. Kolmiel (talk) 20:10, 4 August 2016 (UTC)
Real-world citations are probably better for illustrating how a word is used. Equinox 20:13, 4 August 2016 (UTC)
So, I can handle being considered 'windy', though I have a hard time coping with conflict between me and specific editors. Since the definition as it stands now is incorrect, and ought to be corrected to include what I wrote albeit less wordily, might someone help me be less wordy rather than perfunctorily reverting my edits and simultaneously neglecting to really give enough information about the revert so as to facilitate me, as a n00b actually getting an edit under my belt?

RobbertMacGreighgor (talk) 05:47, 20 August 2016 (UTC)

I can't really see anything you added that improves the meaning of the entry rather than just making it sound more elaborate. We don't need to specify that "necessities of life" include foodstuffs and shelter. We don't need to mention "the Universe" (where else would privation be happening?). We don't need a frankly incomprehensible grammatical chain like "being induced in an individual via a lack of existence of a means by which...". Please don't take it personally but the entry seems fine already. Equinox 09:46, 20 August 2016 (UTC)

, , ∃!, [edit]

These are translingual symbols that have the same meaning in all languages. The language-specific sections just repeat the translingual meaning, but give one possible textual expansion (there is not necessarily just one). Consider that +, -, * and / have no language-specific mathematical definitions either. I think the language-specific sections should be removed unless a clearer use for them can be found. —CodeCat 18:39, 4 August 2016 (UTC)

Deleted them all. Just like the pages for Arabic numerals: don't need to add every language's word for the number (unless they are used in a non-numerical sense, e.g. texting) since 2 to mean two, etc. is pretty universal among languages. Relegate definitions to the spelled-out forms instead. Hillcrest98 (talk) 03:46, 5 August 2016 (UTC)
They have the same meaning in all languages, but obviously not the same name or "pronunciation". Should the names/pronunciations in other languages be listed in English Wiktionary (like "translations", I suppose), or is it intended that English speakers who want to know how to say the symbol in another language should go to the Wiktionary of that language?
I would dispute that ∀ has a pronunciation. It represents another word or words ("for all"), which have pronunciations. We do not, for example, list a pronunciation at 3, but we do at three. Equinox 01:21, 6 August 2016 (UTC)
Since these symbols represent ideas, it may be "translated" or "pronounced" in various different ways. For example, for ∃, er is ‎(there is) or er bestaat ‎(there exists) would be equally valid. And even for simple multiplication we have, in English, times and multiplied by. —CodeCat 01:40, 6 August 2016 (UTC)
I think the underlying point here is that ∀ and friends belong to a different language (the "language of mathematics", or logic), in the same way that (say) #ifdef DEBUG belongs to the programming language C, and the only reason that these things are translingual (or have "the same meaning in all languages", as IP says) is that all of those languages have speakers who are familiar with mathematical (or programming) notation. To suggest that ∀ is English, or Bulgarian, or whatever, is rather absurd. Equinox 01:46, 6 August 2016 (UTC)
Nevertheless, when reading out a formula, there is a conventional way (or ways) to pronounce it in a given language, such as "for all" in English. I think it is legitimate for Wiktionary to record these. The now-deleted per-language sections had the advantage of giving the opportunity for doing that, albeit in a very space-consuming way. The question, I think, is whether the now-deleted "voor alle", "para todo" and so forth belong anywhere on the page in English Wiktionary.
There should be a link to access the spelled-out English form in the Translingual section, and all translations (voor alle, para todo, etc.) would be listed at the spelled-out English form. e.g. 3 and three. Hillcrest98 (talk) 15:18, 7 August 2016 (UTC)

moisturising cream v. moisturizer[edit]

I've noticed that the translation table at moisturizer has a redirect to moisturising cream.

But not all moisturizers are creams. In particular, aloe vera is a gel. So I had a look at the Wikipedia article and it seems to oppose "cream" and other words including "oil" with other words such as "emollient", "humectant", "lotion", "lubricant", and "ointment".

So it seems to me that "moisturising cream" is actually SOP and might not even warrant a full entry of its own.

But even if it does qualify for an entry it is not a cover term for all types of moisturizer.

We could just remove the redirect. We could reverse the redirect. Or we could instead have a redirect with one or both of those with emollient.

But as emollient is a technical term and I'm not that familiar with it, I suspect it also does not cover every kind of moisturizer. In particular, from the Wikipedia article, especially the other technical term humectant seems opposed to it.

My conclusion is that we should remove the redirect and just allow translations under the most generic term moisturizer and the more specific non-technical term moisturising cream and the more specific technical term emollient.

Separately, we should also debate whether moisturising cream is overly SOP to even have an entry.

Please discuss. —This unsigned comment was added by Hippietrail (talkcontribs) at 00:03, 5 August 2016‎ (UTC). DCDuring TALK 10:52, 5 August 2016 (UTC)

  • It would be nice to know who wrote the above. DonnanZ (talk) 10:19, 5 August 2016 (UTC)
    Did I forget to sign it? Sorry about that. I've got a bit of jetlag and an annoying headcold cold I caught just before flying to the tropical heat. — hippietrail (talk) 13:19, 5 August 2016 (UTC)

On whether moisturising cream is SOP[edit]

Moisturizers are mainly either creams (fatty or oily) or lotions, much less oily, though I think there is a grade or possibilities between the typical creams and typical lotions. No English OneLook dictionary has moisturising cream or moisturizing cream as an entry. DCDuring TALK 18:07, 5 August 2016 (UTC)
I remember hearing it first decades ago in commercials for Dove soap, touting their content of "one-quarter moisturizing cream". This may just be one of those meaningless advertising phrases that have seeped into our vocabulary through constant exposure. Chuck Entz (talk) 18:24, 5 August 2016 (UTC)
I created these entries. The term "moisturising cream" definitely exists; reading off a packet belonging to my stepdaughter; "Olay essentials" "light moisturising cream + touch of foundation" ..."it moisturises, perfects and protects skin"... ..."24 hours moisturisation for long-lasting hydration"... . I don't think it's SoP, it's only intended for the skin. Oxford says for moisturiser / moisturizer "a cosmetic preparation used to prevent dryness in the skin" [11]. DonnanZ (talk) 18:51, 5 August 2016 (UTC)
There are moisturizing gels. There are body moisturizing creams, lotions, and gels, skin moisturizing creams, lotions, and gels, and facial moisturizing creams, lotions, and gels, and hand moisturizing creams, lotions, and gels. These all seem perfectly SoP to me. DCDuring TALK 19:18, 5 August 2016 (UTC)
Yes, and shaving cream, shaving foam, and shaving gel, different products for the same job with different consistencies. DonnanZ (talk) 19:56, 5 August 2016 (UTC)
  • As an aside to this, there is also Olay beauty fluid, as described on the bottle, but I think the name may be more of an advertising gimmick and not generally used, unlike moisturising cream. DonnanZ (talk) 06:24, 8 August 2016 (UTC)

On whether the translation table at moisturizer should redirect to that at moisturising cream[edit]

I separated the two topics into independent sections. Obviously the other issue is more subtle and needs discussion. But I feel this one is more straightforward and should go ahead. — hippietrail (talk) 02:59, 10 August 2016 (UTC)

IMO, no. Not all moisturizers are moisturizing creams. They can also be lotions, gels, treatments, fluids, and who knows what else. DCDuring TALK 03:09, 10 August 2016 (UTC)


This verb and its derivatives are listed as class 1 strong verbs, but I'm not sure that's the case: it ends in -de, Proto-Germanic and ON both have it as class 1 weak, and the vowel change in the past is from ON umlaut (it's a *-janą causative) and not ablaut. KarikaSlayer (talk) 14:13, 5 August 2016 (UTC)

Even if it were strong, it would certainly not be class 1. —CodeCat 14:29, 5 August 2016 (UTC)
Also like this are vælge and gøre, both also from weak class 1 -janą verbs. KarikaSlayer (talk) 14:39, 5 August 2016 (UTC)
It's hard to distinguish between strong and irregular verbs sometimes, but I think it's due to the vowel change from "æ" to "a". See also legge in Bokmål. DonnanZ (talk) 16:12, 5 August 2016 (UTC)
It's actually pretty easy: a verb with a dental suffix in the past is weak, regardless of anything else. Compare tell vs told. The phenomenon in question here is Rückumlaut and it's limited to class 1 weak verbs. —CodeCat 16:16, 5 August 2016 (UTC)


We current say this is "US slang", but that it is not really accurate for two reasons: (1) it can be found outside of the US, and (2) it is not used everywhere in the US. It is used by English-speaking Ashkenazi Jews basically everywhere, and also by non-Jews in heavily Jewish-populated areas, such as (but not limited to) New York. This is common with many Yiddish words and phrases. How can we accurately and concisely give fit this into a label? --WikiTiki89 14:53, 5 August 2016 (UTC)


Any Spanish speakers? I've just added a new entry for the English word Corbynista, but now I see that there was already an entry for corbynista, said to be a Spanish word, defined merely as "Corbynista" (which would not have existed in Wiktionary at the time last year when corbynista was created). The example sentence at corbynista seems to be something to do with political theory. Is the Spanish "corbynista" the same word as my English "Corbynista" or not? Should there be a Spanish section at Corbynista? 00:36, 6 August 2016 (UTC)

The Spanish sentence means something like: "For a Corbynista, a society with equal opportunities cannot be achieved through market mechanisms if there is a public alternative" (Google Translate). It's the same thing, but Spanish doesn't spell such words with a capital letter, so it should stay where it is. We distinguish entries by capitals; compare e.g. gift (a present) and Gift (German for "poison"). Equinox 00:42, 6 August 2016 (UTC)
OK, thanks. If it's the same meaning but the Spanish don't capitalise it then everything seems to be in order, as you say.


Should we have a suffix entry for -shed? See the derived terms at watershed. DTLHS (talk) 01:11, 6 August 2016 (UTC)

I think it is probably appropriate. Like -gate (which funnily enough also started with water on it), it now seems to be used without thinking too much about the original term. We do have senses at shed for "a distinction or dividing-line" and "an area of land as distinguished from those around it", but they are obsolete and probably poorly known. Equinox 01:19, 6 August 2016 (UTC)


An Arabic entry created and edited completely by a bot, which I came about upon the Random entry button. Something about this just doesn't seem right to me; it just gives me a feeling like it needs to be cleaned up. The reason is that the verb L4 is used 12 times in the entry. I understand these seem to be different forms inside even their own etymology. But any users who participate in Arabic editing, could I please know why this is? I'm sure there are other entries similar to this. Is it right or not and how should it be modified if it isn't? Philmonte101 (talk) 02:33, 6 August 2016 (UTC)

I believe it's a result of Arabic not usually marking vowels. Look closely at the transliterations under each section. —suzukaze (tc) 02:42, 6 August 2016 (UTC)
Right. The word تدرس can be transliterated "tdrs" (no written vowels, since Arabic usually does not write short vowels). But each of the twelve forms has different diacritics (the diacritics indicate vowels and any doubling of consonants, but, as in Latin, the diacritics are normally not written), so they are pronounced differently. Also, they link to two different verbs (one is "drs" and the other is "drrs"). It looks fine to me. If you copy one of the twelve forms, such as تَدْرُسَ, then go to درس and search the conjugation table for it, you will see the instances of it along with the English transliteration. —Stephen (Talk) 02:57, 6 August 2016 (UTC)
Alright thanks. Then I think we can drop this now, there's nothing to discuss here. I was just concerned about the repeating of L4s, which you don't see often here, so I wanted to bring it up to people who were more knowledgable about the language than me (who has close to no knowledge of Arabic at all atm). Philmonte101 (talk) 03:01, 6 August 2016 (UTC)
Hi. It was my bot that did this. It was not completely clear to me what goes under its own etymology. Generally when editing Arabic I put differently-pronounced forms under their own etymologies, but I made an exception for non-lemma verb forms, where (as Stephen noted) the etymology corresponds to the underlying verb. In this case, there are two different verbs, one meaning "to learn" and the other "to teach", and under each verb there are multiple forms that have the same consonants and hence the same spelling, and each of those forms corresponds to two person-number-gender combinations. Benwing2 (talk) 03:30, 8 August 2016 (UTC)


A Wonderfool sock created this entry, and then right after that, put the discuss template by it. I wonder why... But anyway, I wanted to list it. Doesn't seem bad to me, but apparently there's something he wanted to discuss about it so let's do it. Philmonte101 (talk) 13:21, 6 August 2016 (UTC)

Interesting. It has "simple past and past participle shortcutted", whereas in my (Australian English) usage, it's more likely to be "simple past and past participle shortcut", the shortcutted form seeming to be overly regularised. However, I can offer no sources - for either usage. yoyo (talk) 14:03, 25 August 2016 (UTC)

princely sum[edit]

"princely sum" is often or even usually ironic. This should be mentioned. However, should princely sum be a separate entry? I am in favour of a low bar for inclusion of common set phrases that are arguably just sum-of-parts. 01:55, 7 August 2016 (UTC)

It would be a fine collocation to include in a usage example at princely. Irony is a slender reed on which to build an argument for inclusion of an SoP term. Do you think we should add 'ironic' definitions for all the terms like little, big, noble, etc that are attestably used ironically? What about those used in other rhetorical constructions? DCDuring TALK 12:17, 7 August 2016 (UTC)
"princely sum" is already included in a usage example at "princely". When a specific expression is often or usually used ironically, this should be mentioned. This can be done at "princely" (as I initially added, but then reverted myself), or at a new entry for "princely sum", which I would favour. 12:27, 7 August 2016 (UTC)
Some expressions are often used ironically, some not so often. Almost all expressions can be used ironically. Does ironic use, potentially of any sense of a word, justify an ironic definition for every sense attestably so used? Irony is a matter of rhetoric, which, like grammar, does not provide an adequate justification for a separate definition. DCDuring TALK 12:49, 7 August 2016 (UTC)

Traditional Chinese Character as orthodox[edit]

I wonder why here in Wik Traditional Chinese Characters are treated as orthodox, given that the majority of the Chinese-speaking population use the simplified one(or this is not true?). Is there any standards, policies or something like that dealing with this issue? Huhu9001 (talk) 05:37, 7 August 2016 (UTC)

Yes, this is a policy, adopted after a vote - Wiktionary:Votes/pl-2014-12/Making simplified Chinese soft-redirect to traditional Chinese. Everyone is aware of the usage of simplified characters but it was decided to centralise all the complex contents under the traditional Chinese entries, otherwise all the contents would be required to be duplicated. If you look at entries, the efforts are taken to present all related terms, examples in both scripts. --Anatoli T. (обсудить/вклад) 08:12, 7 August 2016 (UTC)
Given the current limitations of Wiktionary, it does not seem possible to be able automatically redirect simp to centralised trad entries which contain all the relevant information. This would make it much easier to use for most Chinese-speaking people. ---> Tooironic (talk) 12:51, 7 August 2016 (UTC)
Correction: that would make it easier to use for all users of Chinese, since I am talking about having all the information about a term in a centralised page. ---> Tooironic (talk) 04:53, 8 August 2016 (UTC)
To Anatoli T.&---> Tooironic: Thank you for answering. I have read the disscussion. But I am not concerned about duplications or redirections. My question is what standard should be followed in Wik when choosing between multiple writing systems. Or in other words, which system should be redirected or removed to prevent duplication, and which other one should be the one that is redirected toward and remain?Huhu9001 (talk) 05:08, 8 August 2016 (UTC)
The argument is that traditional characters are preferred as head words because it is often the case that a simplified character has more than one traditional equivalent, while vice versa is almost never true. ---> Tooironic (talk) 05:11, 8 August 2016 (UTC)


Is this a word in English? I heard it in the song "Sit Still, Look Pretty" by Daya. ---> Tooironic (talk) 12:49, 7 August 2016 (UTC)

Not according to CFI. It may just be a nonce word, or it may be something that hasn't yet made its way into print. Chuck Entz (talk) 15:59, 7 August 2016 (UTC)
It's not in the lyrics I can find online. The word "captivity" does appear. Misheard? Equinox 17:48, 7 August 2016 (UTC)
OK, thanks guys. ---> Tooironic (talk) 04:54, 8 August 2016 (UTC)

I propose "epiphanal" as an alternate for epiphanic[edit]

I used "epiphany" in a sentence just now, as it rolled right off my tongue as natural as can be. When I checked the spelling I was surprised to find "epiphanic" as the adjectival form of "epiphany". Perhaps for some tongues (no doubt the first to utter it) "epiphanic" rolls off as natural as can be; but, to my ear, "epiphanal", similar to "seminal", is a far smoother expression. Moreover, "Epiphanal" puts accent on the same syllable as its root "epiphany", whereas "epiphanic" shifts the accent, making it sonically farther removed from its root. Depending on context, I'm sure "epiphanic" can have its own musicality and I do not suggest getting rid of it. I simply suggest adding "epiphanal" as an alternate for "epiphanic" (perhaps technically a synonym, but only if it qualifies qualifies as a separate word?)

You misunderstand how Wiktionary works: we're a descriptive dictionary, so we document the way language is (or was) actually used- not how it should be used. In this case, there's enough usage to warrant an entry, though I'll leave it to others to figure out the details. For future reference, it would be better to make this kind of request at Wiktionary:Requested entries (English). Chuck Entz (talk) 15:53, 7 August 2016 (UTC)
Appears to be a synonym for epiphanic. I have just created it. Equinox 17:50, 7 August 2016 (UTC)


http://www.koalanet.com.au/australian-slang.html#D81.11.219.175 16:29, 7 August 2016 (UTC)

I can only find a typo for "all Indic scripts". Equinox 18:42, 7 August 2016 (UTC)
I don't see what that link has to do with "allindic". Maybe you could try to express yourself more clearly. DTLHS (talk) 18:43, 7 August 2016 (UTC)

inwikt81.11.219.175 19:39, 7 August 2016 (UTC)

"all in dic [=Wiktionary]"? —suzukaze (tc) 19:42, 7 August 2016 (UTC)

ys=intrestinlist:) 19:44, 7 August 2016 (UTC)


This is not a misspelling. It is archaic. Prior to 1840 this was the most common spelling. See [12]

I'd correct this myself but I can't work out how to change it from misspelling to archaic.

Yes check.svg Done Equinox 23:09, 7 August 2016 (UTC)

take advantage vs. take advantage of[edit]

We have both. Almost certainly they should be merged, but which one should be the main form?

Another example: make fun of. If take advantage is the main form, should this be make fun instead?

Benwing2 (talk) 00:32, 8 August 2016 (UTC)

I favor the shortest form, unless the "particle" is virtually universal. Though of is by far the most common particle, take advantage is often used without any following particle. In such uses it could be construed as an ellipsis, but that requires some imagination or more advanced understanding of English. Also, the way our search box works favors shorter forms.
I don't think of make fun as idiomatic English, but rather a calque from a language like German, though it can be used without of in ways parallel to take advantage. DCDuring TALK 04:14, 8 August 2016 (UTC)
I can find a few hits for "make fun" like "I will encourage other players within the team and will not make fun or otherwise upset them." I can imagine someone chiding someone else "don't make fun" (of a given thing). - -sche (discuss) 05:24, 8 August 2016 (UTC)
"There is no way that you can buy me, baby. Don't make fun. You got to dig a little deeper, lady. In the heart? Yeah, if you have one." Equinox 05:28, 8 August 2016 (UTC)
This, and all similar expressions, are US slangy versions. There is no such phrase as "don't make fun" in England. You can compare it to "cave" instead of "cave in", and numerous other phrases where American speakers can't be bothered to give the preposition.
We are a descriptive dictionary, not prescriptive, so we do not dismiss US English as an error. Equinox 07:38, 14 August 2016 (UTC)
I'm not sure the adjective-free form is considered good proper English in US contexts, either, especially not "make fun".--Prosfilaes (talk) 13:51, 14 August 2016 (UTC)
How could you be sure, without authoritative sources, not even a too-small poll of native speakers? DCDuring TALK 15:16, 14 August 2016 (UTC)
A Google Books search for "make fun" reveals no uses without "of" in the sense of "to mock", with the exception of one 15-year-old with autism who is quoted as saying "I know some people try to make fun out of me but I don't particularly care about them." Page 15 comes up with "The fact that Lowell was no longer allowed to make fun came as something of a blow,..." from L.J. Davis's A Meaningful Life, but therein it means "to have sex". There's a "We make fun mostly of ourselves." and a self-published "That isn't to say that I don't have fun, make fun, laugh, tell jokes..."--I'm not entirely sure what sense that uses "make fun" in. "Chico's whole aim in life seemed to be to take every challenge and make fun out of it" is another example of "make fun" where it doesn't mean "to mock". After looking at 17 pages, I have yet to find an edited example that uses "make fun" without "of" to mean mock.--Prosfilaes (talk) 16:49, 14 August 2016 (UTC)

German Jugendliche (f.)[edit]

I don't think the strong genitive singular form "Jugendlicher" exists. German singular nouns need a declined article or determiner with them to form a genitive. And when there is such a thing, strong declension is ruled out. Or can anyone give me a sentence? — This wouldn't be so important. (Our verb conjugations are full of phantom subjunctives like "du rappest"...), but we also give "Jugendlicher" in the head template and it does bothers me to have such a phantom form in the head. Kolmiel (talk) 00:46, 8 August 2016 (UTC)

PS: In somewhat poetic style one might produce a strong dative, like: "Manch Jugendlicher ist die Schule ein Greuel." But a genitive seems impossible... Now, even if not, I would propose to change the form of these templates for nominalized adjective. Genitive simply isn't useful here. Kolmiel (talk) 00:58, 8 August 2016 (UTC)
I assume you've gone through the results on Google Books for this form (I can't judge whether they are in the genitive). DTLHS (talk) 01:46, 8 August 2016 (UTC)
I searched around for quite a while and tried quite a few collocations, and could only find citations of the strong genitive plural Jugendlicher, not the strong genitive singular Jugendlicher. With substantivized adjectives like this, would it be better to not list any genitive singular in the headword (the absence might be conspicuous and confusing, especially if it still appeared in the table), or to switch to listing the der/die (or ein/eine?) form, i.e. "Jugendliche f ‎(genitive der Jugendlichen, ..."?
Given that there is a reason why the strong genitive singular would be expected to not exist for substantivized adjectives, if it is also in practice not attested in a large number of cases, IMO it would make sense to also remove it from the table. (The situation would be comparable to uncountable nouns where we don't show a plural, and very different from a case where e.g. "mitternachtsblauen [hypothetically] only gets two (or zero) hits as the neuter mixed genitive form of mitternachtsblau but enough other forms get hits to confirm that mitternachtsblau inflects" — in the latter case, I think suppressing forms would be bad, as I wrote on Talk:midnatten.) - -sche (discuss) 03:29, 13 August 2016 (UTC)
This noun is no different from any other. It's perfectly normal German grammar and whether it's used a lot in everyday language is irrelevant unless you actually want to propose that we send every single form in every declension table through an RFV, which I strictly oppose, even for single exceptions of the rarest of forms. (As in every debate, I oppose any removal of correct information.) That said, for what it's worth, I regularly but rarely use such a strong genitive form, without any intentions to be poetic or archaic whatsoever. For example I'd use "Mit Jugendlicher Übermut..." when referring to my teenage friend if I wanted to start the sentence with the subject in order to stress that the further account has happened specifically because she's a teenager and I felt starting the sentence with "Mit dem Übermut einer Jugendlichen..." would put the focus too much on the brashness rather than her age. Korn [kʰũːɘ̃n] (talk) 10:12, 13 August 2016 (UTC)
Besides poetic style, headlinese is another context where you might find substantivized adjectives without a preceding determiner, though there too the dative (e.g. Mann hilft Jugendlicher) is more likely than the genitive (Mann rettet Mutter deutscher Jugendlicher???) —Aɴɢʀ (talk) 20:56, 13 August 2016 (UTC)

to procure[edit]

First defn is simply "to acquire or obtain". I don't think this is quite right, I think "to procure" is more like "to obtain with difficulty" or "to obtain by any means, to obtain by hook or by crook". Am I right? Benwing2 (talk) 00:51, 8 August 2016 (UTC)

Note that the quote from Orwell seems to illustrate this well:
Later there would also be need for seeds and artificial manures, besides various tools and, finally, the machinery for the windmill. How these were to be procured, no one was able to imagine.
Benwing2 (talk) 00:52, 8 August 2016 (UTC)
Dictionary.com has "1. to obtain or get by care, effort, or the use of special means", "2. to bring about, especially by unscrupulous and indirect means". Merriam-Webster has "to get possession of : obtain by particular care and effort". Century has an obsolete sense "trans. To care for; give attention to; look after", and then "To bring about by care and pains; effect; contrive and effect; induce; cause: as, he procured a law to be passed", "To obtain, as by request, loan, effort, labor, or purchase; get; gain; come into possession of". Perhaps we should add the qualifier after an "especially", like MacMillan does: "to obtain something, especially with effort or difficulty". - -sche (discuss) 01:51, 8 August 2016 (UTC)
Also procurement (as by a company or other organization) of supplies, materials, equipment is performed/managed by procurement officers/managers/specialists who presumably can be said to procure those items. To me this does not entail so much difficulty as organization/systematization. Many private sector companies usually refer to the process as purchasing. Government, especially the military, usually calls it procurement. Some would define procurement as a complex process from requirements planning, vendor selection, contract negotiation, through payment, with purchasing placed near the end of the process. DCDuring TALK 03:45, 8 August 2016 (UTC)

might as well[edit]

We really should have an entry for this. It is not might + as well as suggested by the redirect. OED includes two senses for it. ---> Tooironic (talk) 05:27, 9 August 2016 (UTC)

I see we have may as well as another redirect to as well. Equinox 05:37, 9 August 2016 (UTC)
We could at least as well redirect [[might as well]] as make it a separate entry. A separate entry would imply that it was an idiom rather than an SoP collocation. I think that as well has the same meaning when used with at least some on the short list (may, can, must?, ought?, will?, shall?, need?, dare?, might, could, would, and should) of English auxiliary verbs that express some kinds of "w:Linguistic modality". If we have entries for might as well and may as well, we should have parallel entries for the others on the short list, though I am not at all sure about those on the list with "?". DCDuring TALK 10:52, 9 August 2016 (UTC)
I don't find ought as well significantly different in meaning from should as well, and would freely substitute either one for the other. Unless you find their usages different, if you're OK with the should version, then you ought as well be OK with the ought version - oughtn't you? yoyo (talk) 14:39, 25 August 2016 (UTC)

Russian words in -инг[edit]

Is there a case for a category for Russian words in -ing? These are all borrowings, but there are many of them now and it is an accepted ending at this points. Some academic articles discuss how -ing has taken off. I just looked at рейтинг, but others include кастинг, банкинг, кемпинг, тюнинг, бодибилдинг, and маркетинг. —This unsigned comment was added by (talk) at 06:21, 9 August 2016.

No, there isn't. Words ending in -инг are not generally considered to have a suffix, even if Russians know that -ing is a suffix in English. Words with -инг are usually borrowed in full. There's no suffix-less word "бодибилд", as an example. --Anatoli T. (обсудить/вклад) 06:33, 9 August 2016 (UTC)
I have brought up the same issue here. What do you think about that entry?--Dixtosa (talk) 14:05, 9 August 2016 (UTC)
I think -логия has a much better case than -инг. I'm sure there are words with -логия that were actually formed in Russian by academics or the like. --WikiTiki89 14:46, 9 August 2016 (UTC)
The trouble with Anatoli's response is that he discusses whether it is a suffix, and concludes it isn't. But the word suffix does not occur in my post above. I referred to words "ending in -ing", whether suffix or not, because finding them is facilitated by a category. I'm not suggesting it is a productive suffix, but all these words form a "class" of words, words that are painfully pronounced in Russian due to the lack of /ŋ/.
I don't think these words are any more special than any other words borrowed from English. We already have Category:Russian terms derived from English. --WikiTiki89 17:25, 9 August 2016 (UTC)
What about a category called just "Words ending in -инг"? There wouldn't have to be mention of whether it's a suffix, an ending, or neither. 20:25, 9 August 2016 (UTC)
The point is that I don't see a point in having that category. --WikiTiki89 20:34, 9 August 2016 (UTC)
I've found about 400 such words (list). We can create reverse dictionaries like this one.--Cinemantique (talk) 17:54, 11 August 2016 (UTC)
Thanks Cinematic for a useful list! I wonder what proportion of native Russian speakers know every word in the list.
The reverse index seems like it could be useful. But I don't see a need for a category of words ending in a specific sequence of letters, unless those letters have some sort of special significance. --WikiTiki89 18:17, 11 August 2016 (UTC)
The letters *do* have special significance, which is why the existence of such nouns is a subject of academic interest. For example: https://bells.uib.no/bells/article/download/370/384
The way I see it, that article was just using -инг words to study the popularity of English loanwords and to test out the Russian National Corpus. That doesn't mean there is anything significant about them. --WikiTiki89 12:53, 12 August 2016 (UTC)
There are times when it might be useful if we had some way of categorizing/tracking endings and not just "true" suffixes. Then words ending in -x/-@ like latinx/Chican@ could be more easily tracked, for instance. - -sche (discuss) 03:37, 13 August 2016 (UTC)

Etymology 3 of Russian "вира"[edit]

Etymology 3 of Russian "вира ‎(vira)" has a link that refers to a different etymology.

I don’t understand. Etymology 3 doesn’t have a link. Etymology 3 of вира ‎(vira) is marked as the genitive of вир ‎(vir), which is an archaic form of Etymology 1 of вира ‎(vira, wergeld). So Etymology 1 and Etymology 3 are basically the same, except that somehow вир ‎(vir) gained a final -а in the modern form, and the original вир ‎(vir) came to be no longer used. —Stephen (Talk) 16:30, 22 August 2016 (UTC)
Look here: [13] This shows (among other things) Ushakov's dictionary definition of вир, where he defines it as "Водоворот в глубоких местах рек или озер". Where do you see that вир is an archaic form of вира? Benwing2 (talk) 16:35, 22 August 2016 (UTC)
It seemed to be suggested by starling.rinet.ru, where it says that вира ‎(vira) is a kind of штраф ‎(štraf), and both вир ‎(vir) and вира ‎(vira) are marked as variants. But now it seems that вир ‎(vir) is not a variant of вира ‎(vira), but has a different meaning. —Stephen (Talk) 16:44, 22 August 2016 (UTC)

Chernozemic, chernozemic[edit]

I moved the entry to the capitalized form because it seemed more common. But here, both forms are being used on the same page. The source uses "Chernozemic soils" but "chernozemic A horizon". What is the distinction here? DTLHS (talk) 00:02, 10 August 2016 (UTC)

Hmmm. I'm no expert on chemistry or whatever, but since the noun it is based on is usually used in lowercase, I'd say it was incorrect to even have an entry on its capitalized form, since it seems more of a nonstandard capitalization sort of thing. For instance, notice how we have The deleted, even though so many sources use The in capital letters. Philmonte101 (talk) 00:34, 10 August 2016 (UTC)
That is completely irrelevant. The term is sometimes capitalized and sometimes not, regardless of whether it is at the start of the sentence. I would like to know why both forms are being used in the same source. DTLHS (talk) 00:38, 10 August 2016 (UTC)
I wasn't just saying because of the first word of a sentence. Sometimes people will randomly capitalize words in documents, as I've found. Well, maybe not randomly, but I find it happening most in words that they find complex or that they might think need to be capitalized for whatever reason. The complexity thing I just mentioned seems like what is happening in the sources you found. I've seen people use these types of miscapitalizations in newspapers, books, signs, and heck, even in formal documents by people with PhDs. Miscapitalizations are much more common than a lot of people might think, that's all I'm saying. Personally, I don't think we should have entries for words that are miscapitalized for such reasons, unless they're done so for a better reason than "oh well it's a common noun/adjective, but a complicated one so I'm gonna capitalize it, unlike everything else in this document, for whatever reason". Philmonte101 (talk) 00:50, 10 August 2016 (UTC)
@ User:DTLHS I've started a new discussion at RFD about Chernozemic that will probably interest you. I have to say, thank you for bringing this up. This is a very interesting case, and I'm honestly but weirdly excited to see where this discussion will go. Philmonte101 (talk) 00:07, 11 August 2016 (UTC)

get one's act together[edit]

There are many entries that could be created that use "act together" at the end, @User:Hippietrail specifically but I am also looking for input from the community. have one's act together, keep one's act together, hold one's act together, and others, are all attested. What should we do? Philmonte101 (talk) 03:21, 11 August 2016 (UTC)

The only other online dictionary I came across that had an entry covered both "keep one's act together" and "have one's act together" but none of the others. It used a format like paper dictionaries where phrasal entries are all listed under the keyword "act", which is a weak point of our format I suppose. We probably have entries for analogous turns of phrase if anyone can think on some.
In the meantime the best I can think up right now is to consider "get ..." and "have ..." to be somewhat similar to lemma or citation forms and variants could have soft redirects if they were to be considered for support. OR having an entry at at together or something else ugly but generalized. Interested to see what others think. — hippietrail (talk) 05:52, 11 August 2016 (UTC)
I like the ugly (act together or one's act together) with usage examples for each verb (verb-pronoun combo?) to which users would find their way via the failed search page. Alternatively or as the center of a bunch of hard redirects from the various verb + "act together" combos, if the failed-search page is unsatisfactory. DCDuring TALK 10:36, 11 August 2016 (UTC)
I prefer your one's act together to just act together since possession is also a key part of the idiom. The only other wording I can think of for one's act to be togetherhippietrail (talk) 07:56, 12 August 2016 (UTC)
I also want to add that I've heard people say things like "You'd better make it so that your act is together again." Or in response to one of the idioms, someone might more commonly than that say "But my act is together." Yeah... I'm confused tbh. I'm in support of creating act together, but what about the verbs that could go in between? Philmonte101 (talk) 16:42, 11 August 2016 (UTC)
In between?
I would favor redirects from, for example, [[get one's act together]], [[have one's act together]], [[get your act together]] to the core [[act together]] entry. I know this doesn't facilitate translations, but I don't really care, because I don't think designing a dictionary around translations is a good idea if idioms are to be covered well. DCDuring TALK 17:46, 11 August 2016 (UTC)
I don't think "act together" is a good entry, because it isn't a lemma, and doesn't really represent a part of speech ("act" is a noun here, but "act together" isn't anything). AFAICT, the only good justification for a non-lemma main entry is being a particle, and this certainly isn't one. Equinox 20:20, 11 August 2016 (UTC)
There are a lot more expressions: "have one's act together", "keep one's act together", "hold one's act together", "one's act stayed together" (not sure what the lemma would be for that one), etc. --WikiTiki89 21:24, 11 August 2016 (UTC)
Definitely. But the noun and (adverb?) are juxtaposed rather than being a grammatical unit. My personal feeling is that we should pick the commonest one and make a full entry there, either with a ton of alternative forms and/or with usage notes exemplifying the kinds of similar form that exist. I don't think we should try to make an artificial entry for "act together" when it isn't a meaningful/moveable chunk of a parse tree. Equinox 21:51, 11 August 2016 (UTC)
I agree with your point. I was just trying to avoid entry proliferation, since all the verbs mentioned merit an entry. We would need 'See also' sections filled with still-incomplete lists of cross-references (by virtue of omitting the most common personal pronouns) to related lemmas (like have one's act together [also hold and keep], at least).
If your point is generally agreed to for this entry, we should determine whether similar abominations should get the treatment this would get, perhaps at BP. DCDuring TALK 23:15, 11 August 2016 (UTC)
Also get one's shit together. And how many more? DCDuring TALK 23:17, 11 August 2016 (UTC)
Consider also:
  • 2012, Mia Downing, Just Ask:
    That right there was messed up enough for a guy with his act together
Does this mean everything should be at [[together]] with redirects? DCDuring TALK 23:27, 11 August 2016 (UTC)
I feel like this could be extended onto the definitions of act and together, now that I think about it. For example: act: one's performance (in any situation), together: in good standing, morally strong. These definitions would probably end up better than I've worded them though. Philmonte101 (talk) 02:39, 12 August 2016 (UTC)


Why do we have a picture of someone with stubble in the entry, when the definition describes peach fuzz on someone unable to grow a beard? I'd just remove it if it hadn't obviously been looked over recently, given that it's WOTD. The caption sucks too...it isn't relevent where the waiter is from, or even that it's a waiter in the picture. Andrew Sheedy (talk) 03:09, 12 August 2016 (UTC)

Well, it is both relevant and irrelevant in many ways where the waiter is from. But the fact that the waiter is (allegedly) from North Carolina (the US state) makes the image slightly less relevant for an entry that is about a term not used in the US (first time I've seen it, and that's where I'm from). Philmonte101 (talk) 04:04, 12 August 2016 (UTC)

Stalinism, copied from talk page[edit]

In the Stalinism entry one of the definitions of Stalinism given is 'totalitarianism', [14]. I don't think that definition makes sense. Stalinism is totalitarian, but there are Non-Stalinist and Anti-Stalinist forms of totalitarianism. Trotskyism and Nazism are both Anti-Stalinist forms of totalitarianism. I think defining Stalinism as totalitarianism would be like defining Freudism as psychology, Freudism is only one form of psychology, and Stalinism is only one form of totalitarianism. RandomScholar30 (talk) 08:39, 12 August 2016 (UTC)

Well that definition does make sense if people in general use the term Stalinism metaphorically for all 'totalitarian' political systems. But I don't believe they do. I think more people make reference to Nazi comparisons when referring to dictatorships than Stalinist ones. But I could be wrong. RandomScholar30 (talk) 08:46, 12 August 2016 (UTC)
So change it. Korn [kʰũːɘ̃n] (talk) 08:53, 12 August 2016 (UTC)
Another editor opposes my changing it. I don't want to change it unless I'm supported by consensus. Do you agree with me that Stalinism does not mean totalitarianism in all of its form, only that specific form of totalitarianism, or do you agree with the editor who thinks it does mean that?RandomScholar30 (talk) 08:59, 12 August 2016 (UTC)
I looked at the talk page debate that previously took place over the issue. [15] I agree with Stephen that we define words based on popular use, not correct use, in a dictionary. However, I don't believe Stalinism is popularly used as a synonym for all forms of totalitarianism, I believe the popular use usually cites Nazism and Fascism as synonyms. But I could be wrong. If it is in the popular use among the majority of people as a term describing all of totalitarianism then I was mistaken to take that usage out. But I don't believe it is. RandomScholar30 (talk) 09:05, 12 August 2016 (UTC)
If you want you can challenge the definition. But only three unambiguous uses in durably attested media are required to retain the definition. The kind of metonomy that would lead Stalinism to be used to mean "totalitarianism" is common. I would expect that Stalinism would be favored over Naziism by some anti-leftist speakers and authors. DCDuring TALK 09:12, 12 August 2016 (UTC)
I'm sure its been used that way at least 3 times. I just didn't think it was commonly used that way. And most journalists and historians are on the left, so I still would say Nazi being used as a catch all for totalitarian is more common than Stalinist. But now that I know it only takes three examples to keep it, I think it will need to stay. I'm sure there are at least three. RandomScholar30 (talk) 09:45, 12 August 2016 (UTC)
How common or how rare is the use of Stalinism to mean 'any totalitarianism'? If it's uncommon or rare it should be tagged as such. - -sche (discuss) 18:43, 12 August 2016 (UTC)

"Afoul" translations.... ?[edit]

I wanted to know translation(s) of "afoul", but there is none in its article: afoul. What would it be in Portuguese? Automatic translation service did not suggest any, and my small dictionary does not have this word.

There ARE none in the article on it. I don't know what the Portuguese translation is, but "to run afoul of the law" means "to come up against the law" in the sense that you've broken the law.
Dear editors, whoever you are (having forgotten to sign your entries!): I suggest you consider translations of the core word form foul. For example, "to run afoul of the law" may also be expressed as "to run foul of the law". afoul uses the prefix a- which has become obsolete in many contexts where it formerly reigned. yoyo (talk) 14:50, 25 August 2016 (UTC)


On Talk:logrolling, a user says this term isn't used in Australian English. (The definition may also need a bit of refining.) Is it used in the UK? It does seem to be attested in North American works. Let's add the relevant regional labels. I presume the distribution of the verb logroll is similar. - -sche (discuss) 19:47, 12 August 2016 (UTC)

Definition #3 turns up with frequency in Private Eye's book column, but I haven't heard it elsewhere. Keith the Koala (talk) 21:59, 12 August 2016 (UTC)

желание / пожелание[edit]

There are both "wish". Is there any difference? And if so, can we note it? —This unsigned comment was added by ‎ (talkcontribs).

There are always subtle or less than subtle differences in synonyms.
"пожелание" is more frequently used when you wish someone something, not for yourself, in expressions: "с наилу́чшими пожела́ниями" - "with best wishes" but it could also be your own wish - "Есть ли каки́е-нибудь пожела́ния?" - "Are there (do you have) any wishes/desires?". "пожелание" has a subsense of "recommendation", "advise".--Anatoli T. (обсудить/вклад) 08:47, 13 August 2016 (UTC)
Thank you for the explanation! Very useful.


Currently there are 4 definitions:

   1. A garment to keep the ears warm.
   2. A garment or part worn over a single ear.
   3. A sound-deadening cup or a pair of such cups worn over the ear or ears.
   4. attributive form of earmuffs.

I can understand Nos 2 & 4, but the other two are puzzling. "1. A garment to keep the ears warm" - if I wear one of those headbands covering the ears (or maybe even a beanie, an ushanka &c), does it become an earmuff? "3. A sound-deadening cup or a pair of such cups worn over the ear or ears" - can the singular "earmuff" ever refer to a pair of earmuffs except attributively per def 4? --Droigheann (talk) 14:14, 13 August 2016 (UTC)

No, that would be "Any garment to keep the ears warm". Perhaps "An item worn to keep the ears warm" is better Leasnam (talk) 02:15, 15 August 2016 (UTC)
Point taken, but it still seems to me like defining an armchair as "a piece of furniture to sit on". And can it really be in the singular when related to both ears? --Droigheann (talk) 23:34, 15 August 2016 (UTC)
   I may not make it to glasses and spectacles and pants to do my own research, but is it just my ignorance that simply accepts without comment the "singular, but plural in construction" notation (which i understand amounts to plurals of the verbs they are subjects for, and plurals of the pronouns referring to them)? Am i missing something?
--Jerzyt 17:17, 17 August 2016 (UTC)

mentally retarded[edit]

Can we come up with a better definition for this? DTLHS (talk) 16:23, 13 August 2016 (UTC)

Yeah, it can't be right, since the phrase "mentally retarded child" is sometimes used. Equinox 16:25, 13 August 2016 (UTC)
The definition is overly concerned to preach to people as to whether they should use this phrase. I do use the phrase "mentally retarded".


http://wordspy.com/index.php?word=reax --Espoo (talk) 19:03, 13 August 2016 (UTC)

reax (just inserting a link). —Justin (koavf)TCM 19:32, 13 August 2016 (UTC)

doggone has superlative form doggonest but probably no comparative form: how to declare this in the headline?[edit]

Currently doggone doesn't have its superlative form doggonest in the headline. I don't know how should the headline be changed to reflect this. Maybe the template code should be changed to allow for this? an-edj documentation doesn't say anything about this situation. Could somebody familiar with this fix doggone? 21:53, 13 August 2016 (UTC)

I edited the entry to just use {{head}} directly. DTLHS (talk) 23:12, 13 August 2016 (UTC)


"(grammar) Swedish: verbform in combination with an inflection of ha (sv) to form the present perfect and pluperfect". Does this really needs its own sense? DTLHS (talk) 23:19, 15 August 2016 (UTC)


IPA says [-ɪj], audio file says [-ɪç]. Is that kind of devoicing normal? If so, is there a reason it's not reflected in the IPA? Korn [kʰũːɘ̃n] (talk) 23:35, 15 August 2016 (UTC)

I think that's just a recording defect. --WikiTiki89 23:43, 15 August 2016 (UTC)
Russians will often pronounce the й of -ый/-ий as a voiced palatal fricative ʝ in careful speech, trying to differentiate, for example, -ий from -ии and -и. Even so, I have never seen it represented in IPA as anything other than [j]. —Stephen (Talk) 00:38, 16 August 2016 (UTC)
What about casual speech? Is there a difference between русский and русски in casual or rapid speech? —Aɴɢʀ (talk) 14:32, 16 August 2016 (UTC)
@Angr: I was thinking about this for a while. There is always a difference between русский and русски. It seems in my personal speech, the final vowel of русски is slightly more central and very short, while the final vowel of русский is more tense and longer. So русский is [ˈru(ː)skʲɪː] or [ˈru(ː)skʲɪɪ̯] or [ˈru(ː)skʲɪi̯], while русски is [ˈru(ː)skʲɪ̈]. (In case it matters, it seems that the precise length of the stressed vowel depends on the overall prosody of the sentence.) But that's just my quick analysis based on the far-from-perfect data set of pronouncing these words over and over to myself. Does anyone know of actual research out there on the subject? --WikiTiki89 15:23, 16 August 2016 (UTC)

Common etymology of English "Hittite" and German "Hethiter"?[edit]

The etymologies of English "Hittite" and German "Hethiter" (surely having the same origin?) both refer to different Hebrew words. If they are from the same word, as I suppose, then (at least) one is wrong, and it needs to be fixed. If they are indeed from different words, then a note not to confuse them should be added to both.

Please provide links, otherwise it's difficult to follow what you're talking about. I assume you're referring to the etymology sections of Hittite and of de:Hethiter (since en-wikt's own entry Hethiter doesn't have an etymology section). Anyway, you're right, the Biblical Hebrew form is חִתִּי (with a tav), not חִטִּים (with a tet). I've fixed our entry. —Aɴɢʀ (talk) 16:11, 17 August 2016 (UTC)


I'm having some trouble figuring out the paradigm of this noun. The nominative dual form was apparently *h₃ókʷih₁, but the ending *-ih₁ is for neuter nouns while our reconstruction is of a common noun. Was this indeed a neuter noun? Germanic, Slavic and Indo-Iranian all have neuter nouns, but they've all been reformed morphologically in some way. Ancient Greek ὄσσε ‎(ósse) was also neuter apparently, and is a direct continuation of the PIE neuter dual, but ὤψ ‎(ṓps) is feminine and has a strange long vowel. Are there any direct attestations of the singular neuter of this noun? —CodeCat 14:31, 17 August 2016 (UTC)

Is "-toxin" a suffix?[edit]

User:EI at10s has changed a large number of entries from whatever- + toxin etymologies to a -toxin suffix. I don't see how it's a suffix. Others' opinions? Equinox 16:58, 17 August 2016 (UTC)

It would be a suffix if it were different in some way from the regular noun toxin. But I don't see that it is different in any way. —CodeCat 17:03, 17 August 2016 (UTC)
As far as I know, a suffix is a post-root affix, and an affix is simply a morpheme that is attached to another morpheme or word. Suffixes can be inflectional or derivational. Derivational suffixes often change the word class, but not always. A morpheme can be bound, or free. Relying on these definitions, toxin is a free morpheme that can still act as a derivational suffix. In particular, I was drawn to them by the systematicity to which you could suffix stems with -toxin to create a new word, and the amount of words formed this way are far more numerous than simple two-word compounds and much more like affixation. In addition, other plain nouns can be suffixes: -gate and -fag have become suffixes in recent years, and classically -graph and -phobia and even -ism are free morphemes. Anyway, that's my reasoning. —This unsigned comment was added by EI at10s (talkcontribs) at 17:29, 17 August 2016 (UTC).
The suffixes -ism, -graph, and -phobia were widespread before the nouns with the corresponding senses developed. -gate has a new meaning. I have no idea about -fag, given our current lack of meaning-bearing definition. DCDuring TALK 17:40, 17 August 2016 (UTC)
-toxin is never used as a derivational suffix. What is happening is that prefixes are attached to the noun toxin. --WikiTiki89 17:45, 17 August 2016 (UTC)
I don't understand under what stipulation -toxin isn't acceptable as a suffix. A cursory google search reveals several sites and publications list -toxin as a suffix.
Even more, -toxic is the original suffix, which is found in far more dictionaries and terminology references as a valid suffix, and -toxin is merely the nominal form of that. EI at10s (talk) 18:38, 17 August 2016 (UTC)
I'd ask the opposite. In what way is this suffix distinguishable from the noun toxin used in a compound? —CodeCat 18:43, 17 August 2016 (UTC)
(e/c) People in the medical field do not always know a whole lot about lexicography. By the way, can you give some examples of words in which you think -toxin or -toxic is a suffix? --WikiTiki89 18:45, 17 August 2016 (UTC)
I'll grant you that first point. I've been working on {{Category:English words suffixed with -toxin}}, specifically after finding the word picrotoxin already in the Category when I found it. I thought it was a sound placement and decided to follow the pattern. If it was entered erroneously, who's to say. I think it fits in with other scientific nomenclature, especially chemical, with other suffixes like -ide, -ine, -ase or -in. To me it's only coincidental that toxin can stand by itself. I'll correct them all if it's proven it can't be a suffix. As far as Wiktionary is concerned, though, there are also Categories for words suffixed with -craft, -head, -land, -monger, -man, or -work that seem to follow the same pattern. EI at10s (talk) 19:06, 17 August 2016 (UTC)
To me it feels more akin to the alga in microalga or the flora in megaflora. Hard to articulate why. Equinox 19:12, 17 August 2016 (UTC)

Is "savvy?" really an "Interjection"?[edit]

   Perhaps i've failed Wikt by thinking, and maybe saying, "WP is a 'pedia that anyone can edit, and of course Wikt is a dict that anyone can edit". And, correspondingly, by assuming that my experience with WP means i can be useful in wikt without being a linguist. (I'd welcome feedback.)
   Specifically, wikt has, under savvy# Interjection

  1. (informal) Do you understand?

whereas for ordinary human beings the expression of an interjection is enhanced by putting a q-mark and an ex-pt next to each other almost solely as a comic-book trope; this implies to me that the Q-mark is about meaning (which is partly encoded by intonation), while the exclamation point has two distinct purposes (even if both purposes can sometimes be served in the use of the punctuation):

  1. Communicating one's own surprise, and/or belief that the reader will be surprised
  2. In recording speech, verbatim or nearly so, encoding the fact of surprise or excitement being reflected in the speech being quoted

   So, summarizing a long thot, is the juxtapostion of "Interjection" and the q-mark in the same sub-section a "feature" or a "bug"?
--Jerzyt 16:59, 17 August 2016 (UTC)

I'd say this is merely ellipsis, like "understand?" for "do you understand me?". Equinox 17:01, 17 August 2016 (UTC)
We have persistent pressure to declare such use of an ordinary word an interjection and many here seem to lack the wit to vote delete when an RfD comes around. Pragmatics can provide a justification for such use, which is found attractive even by those who don't know what pragmatics is. DCDuring TALK 18:29, 17 August 2016 (UTC)
This is just ordinary use of the verb sense. --WikiTiki89 18:38, 17 August 2016 (UTC)
I think it's short for "Are you savvy to what I'm saying." not unlike "Dig?" = "Can you dig to what I'm saying." or "Get it?" Also, it seems to generally be a UK thing from what I've gleaned via media (though I've never left North America). Captain Jack Sparrow in Pirate's of the Caribbean comes to mind. ~ JasonCarswell (talk) 03:30, 18 August 2016 (UTC)


"To bereave or deprive a person of land or territory; confiscate." This makes the object unclear: does one beland a person (of her land), or beland some territory (i.e. confiscate it)? Searching is difficult because of scannos for "be landed", etc. Equinox 20:37, 17 August 2016 (UTC)

Not to be found in Century 1911. OED? DCDuring TALK 20:44, 17 August 2016 (UTC)
Not in OED (to which I will lose my university-based access very soon, so grab me ASAP if you need things looked up). Equinox 20:46, 17 August 2016 (UTC)
Possibly? DTLHS (talk) 21:08, 17 August 2016 (UTC)
"To be landed ("brought ashore") or unladen ("unloaded (possibly onto another vessel)")". Context is of a port with customs to be collected etc. DCDuring TALK 22:52, 17 August 2016 (UTC)
Could it be in the OED in the entry for the prefix be- ? Leasnam (talk) 23:06, 17 August 2016 (UTC)
No, you can search their full text and the only result is an author named D. Beland. DTLHS (talk) 23:09, 17 August 2016 (UTC)
No results for "belanden" or "belenden" either. DTLHS (talk) 23:12, 17 August 2016 (UTC)
Ok. It is in Middle English however [[16]] Leasnam (talk) 23:21, 17 August 2016 (UTC)
Were you doing that thing where you pretend that an ME term is modern English, and don't even gloss it as obsolete? Stop doing that thing. Equinox 23:26, 17 August 2016 (UTC)
Don't you know it's rude to assume :). Coincidentally, this behaviour has stopped. Why do you dig up things I did years ago as though I had done them last night ? Leasnam (talk) 23:30, 17 August 2016 (UTC)
But to be honest, if memory serves, I think I obtained that from a prefix entry (prefix be-)...beland I believe was one of the words used to exemplify a particular meaning of the prefix, and in this instance it had the force of "remove/away", and beland itself may not have even had an entry of its own--the def was summed up there where it was. But it's been so long and I've processed so many over the years. Of course it's not taken from Middle English, the concept of such a word has no bearing in today's world anyway. Why would I need to pass this off as a modern word when there are so many other words that would suit my devious purposes better :p ? Leasnam (talk) 23:56, 17 August 2016 (UTC)
Okay, no offence: I didn't check dates, and actually I didn't know you'd stopped. I do quite often stumble across oddities like beflee, beclumpse, betoil, besoothe. Maybe they are old entries but we still owe it to our readers (especially English-learners) to go back and gloss them appropriately. Equinox 23:59, 17 August 2016 (UTC)
Evidence that getting 3 citations for every English lemma should be our number one priority. DTLHS (talk) 00:03, 18 August 2016 (UTC)
I agree on all. We're cool : ) Leasnam (talk) 00:05, 18 August 2016 (UTC)

semester hours[edit]

First of all, is this really only attested in its plural form? (Created in 2005) Also, isn't this sort of an SOP (hours (per) semester)? Philmonte101 (talk) 22:52, 17 August 2016 (UTC)

It's a common unit of measure in education. Is it more like light year or mile per hour/miles per hour? DCDuring TALK 23:19, 17 August 2016 (UTC)
Yes, it should be moved to the singular. I would say it's not SOP. Also, the definition is wrong: one semester hour means one hour per week (of class time) over the course of a semester. --WikiTiki89 14:15, 18 August 2016 (UTC)

sensengasse & sensengasses[edit]

Watching a video I came upon a word I couldn't look up as per usual.

from 44m39s to 44m52s The James Corbett Report and 2015 Emmy winner Lionel in 'Lionel On Trial for Anarchist Thought Crimes' (2015-04-14)

Brobdingnagian and sapiens exist, but the last one sounds like sensengaskis, sensengasses, or sensengasities. On Google the closest hint I found that made sense was a page about Vienna [17], translated to English may be a basis for what might be the beginning of a definition:

  • sensengasse: the golden sense (wisdom? reason? rationality?)

I'd love to either be corrected and pointed to the right word, or have this word and the plural added by someone who can verify and improve. Thanks. ~ JasonCarswell (talk) 03:22, 18 August 2016 (UTC)

You're hearing the "s" at the end of the previous word, followed by "and sagacity". Chuck Entz (talk) 06:08, 18 August 2016 (UTC)
"Brobdingnagian sapience and sagacity". DCDuring TALK 15:59, 18 August 2016 (UTC)
FANTASTIC! Thank you so much. It would still make for a great new word.  :) ~ JasonCarswell (talk) 21:17, 18 August 2016 (UTC)

art styles - proper nouns or common nouns?[edit]

Why are Art Deco and Romanticism considered proper nouns and not cubism, neoclassicism, historicism, etc.? We seem to be inconsistent on whether art styles/movements should be proper or common nouns, much like our coverage of religion names. ---> Tooironic (talk) 04:36, 18 August 2016 (UTC)

For religions, we settled on considering them proper nouns (except those that are in the grey area of being maybe philosophies); maybe someone will track down the BP link. The "-ism" art styles on the other hand seem like schools of thought (and often are defined as such, in the sense definition-line as at neoclassicism or in an adjacent one as at modernism), and IMO are the same part of speech as liberalism, i.e. common nouns. I suspect the only reason the two you name are labelled proper nouns is that they are capitalized. Many people (including even a college-level grammar textbook I found) say that anything capitalized is a proper noun, even though any Australian (or Russian, or other capitalized common noun) can point out that it's trivially obvious that isn't the case. - -sche (discuss) 11:09, 18 August 2016 (UTC)


This doesn't seem archaic, but I'm also not sure it's separate from the usual sense. One can also say (pulling examples from Google Books) there were "a couple of demure puss-like maidens, of some thirty autumns, habited like nuns", "you were twenty springs old", "twenty Christmases old", "twelve Passovers old", etc. - -sche (discuss) 10:50, 18 August 2016 (UTC)

Most of these relate to annual events or periods. We also have moon, well known from movie versions of Native Americans speaking English ("many moons"). None of these seem to me to be truly lexical. I would imagine that each use of any seems to be a re-interpretation of the usual lexical meaning in light of the context. Each particular noun brings its own connotations/associations, but normal use is a deixis. If one is speaking of taxes, one might say "several tax days ago/hence" or "several April 15ths ago/hence". Canine pet time can be referenced as, for example, "three dogs ago". DCDuring TALK 12:58, 18 August 2016 (UTC)

The slow-roll entry should be updated/expanded[edit]

The page for slow roll https://en.wiktionary.org/wiki/slow_roll
refers only to the poker gaming context.

The word is being otherwise employed and its meaning is not clear. https://en.wiktionary.org/wiki/Talk:slow_roll#Confusion_with_.E2.80.9Cslow-walking.E2.80.9D

street address[edit]

Defined as a synonym of house number. Is that right? I thought a street address was e.g. "10 High Street" (perhaps with a town, county and postcode too), not merely the number 10. Equinox 18:10, 18 August 2016 (UTC)

  • No, it's wrong. A street address is a number or name followed by a street/road/etc name. In some countries the order of these things is reversed. SemperBlotto (talk) 20:30, 18 August 2016 (UTC)
    • I'd go so far as to say the street address includes the city, state/province (if necessary), ZIP code/postal code (if necessary), and so forth. —Aɴɢʀ (talk) 22:07, 18 August 2016 (UTC)

Problem with "unless"[edit]

If you know "he will do his homework unless there are cartoons on TV", and you know there will be cartoons on TV, do you know that he won't do his homework? I got this question from a YouTube video called "Logic Games - 2) Conditional Statements" (question 5) Siuenti (talk) 19:34, 18 August 2016 (UTC)

Yes, he won't do the homework. "Unless" is like the opposite of "if". Equinox 20:26, 18 August 2016 (UTC)
Hmm, I wonder. If we replace "unless" with "if ... not", we get "He will do his homework if there are not cartoons on TV". Although that statement would commonly be interpreted as meaning "if and only if there are not cartoons on TV", according to strict logic, it doesn't mean that. Strictly speaking, the sentence makes no prediction at all about what will happen if there are cartoons on TV. I don't know whether "unless" necessarily has to mean "if and only if ... not", or whether it simply means "if ... not" and thus also makes no prediction as to what will happen if there are cartoons on TV. —Aɴɢʀ (talk) 22:03, 18 August 2016 (UTC)

Latin gravida[edit]

Is there any reason to list this as a separate word from gravidus, insisting it is feminine only? It is used metaphorically in any gender all the time (of the tempestuous sea, of the speaker with tears, etc.) It seems to me this is a somewhat trivial semantic distinction being made rather than a grammatical one. Isomorphyc (talk) 00:10, 19 August 2016 (UTC)

I agree. The sense "pregnant" is already at gravidus; gravida and gravidā should just be nonlemma forms of gravidus. —Aɴɢʀ (talk) 15:27, 19 August 2016 (UTC)
I agree as well. Just another one of EncycloPetey's ill-planned entries. —Μετάknowledgediscuss/deeds 17:34, 19 August 2016 (UTC)
Don't blame this on EncycloPetey. It's a fairly common misconception that the word for "pregnant" can only be feminine. We had this issue in entries from a number of languages, like Russian and Hebrew. Some real dictionaries even make this mistake. --WikiTiki89 17:50, 19 August 2016 (UTC)
I remember having this discussion with my at-the-time girlfriend about the French word enceinte whether it can ever be enceint because some female animals can have masculine gender (like poisson rouge ‎(gold fish)). She was of the opinion that you always say enceinte no matter what. Renard Migrant (talk) 19:58, 22 August 2016 (UTC)

greatest athlete in the world/world's greatest athlete[edit]

Why wouldn't this be an idiomatic noun? This doesn't clearly show what kind of athlete is referred to, as the term actually means the reigning Olympic champion in the decathlon, and has for decades. [18][19][20][21] -- 08:26, 19 August 2016 (UTC)

This seems to me to be a purely descriptive phrase and hence unsuitable for inclusion in the dictionary. I see no reason to think it must always specifically refer to the reigning Olympic champion in the decathlon. 10:05, 19 August 2016 (UTC)
Those people might be of the opinion that the reigning Olympic decathlon gold medalist is the world's greatest athlete, but so what? It's just an opinion and that's not what dictionaries are for. Do we need greatest hockey player of all-time for Wayne Gretzky? Renard Migrant (talk) 19:56, 22 August 2016 (UTC)

-ite vs -lite[edit]

So my problem is this: Somewhere, some time ago, someone decided that the -lite suffix (deriving from -lith should be reconstructed as -ite. As a result, English has many words for minerals and stones that end in both -lite and -ite. Where that's a problem is that this merged with the previous -ite which indicates a person follower. I want to somehow present that these suffixes are etymologically separate morphemes and divide the current {{Category:English words suffixed with -ite}} into two sections for each meaning of the suffix, relating that one form is related to -lite. If this is a suitable suggestion to follow through with, what is the best course of action? EI at10s (talk) 20:15, 19 August 2016 (UTC)

@EI at10s: This is a good point. I had my robot make a list. These are the -lite words also categorised as minerals, meaning they are almost certainly mis-suffixed: User:OrphicBot/Sandbox/lite_minerals. These are the -lite words which are not categorised as minerals; but a great many are indeed minerals: User:OrphicBot/Sandbox/maybe_lite_minerals. Minerals in the latter list will need both suffixes and category tags added. If you would like (and if this seems uncontroversial to others), I can fix them mechanically in a few minutes; but feel free also to use my lists to make any edits if you would prefer. Isomorphyc (talk) 21:09, 19 August 2016 (UTC)
I can pretty accurately identify which are minerals and which are not (possibly in both lists) but I am not quite sure what exactly to do with them. Would the suffix for minerals still be -lite even if there is no L present, or the L is part of the root? EI at10s (talk) 21:20, 19 August 2016 (UTC)
  • I don't think there is evidence or authoritative support for the idea that -ite in any of its uses is derived from -lite. Before embarking on an extensive exercise that may have to be undone, could you provide evidence or authority to support the hypothesis. DCDuring TALK 21:27, 19 August 2016 (UTC)
    • Pardon if it sounds a bit insulting but it's kinda obvious the relation just etymologically, and deriving from the pattern of hundreds of mineral names ending in -ite instead of -lite where phonotactics and nomenclature is concerned. But here are a few sources that provide the explanation.
EI at10s (talk) 21:35, 19 August 2016 (UTC)
The first two -ite minerals I thought of, granite and pyrite, have absolutely nothing to do with -lite. --WikiTiki89 21:47, 19 August 2016 (UTC)
Surely there will be a few words ending in "-ite" that are not cognates, but that's fewer than more. I can give you hematite, calcite and magnetite, which are etymylogically separate from your examples. It's just a matter of doing the etymology homework. Also, your pyrite example does in fact come from the Greek λίθος anyway.EI at10s (talk) 22:00, 19 August 2016 (UTC)
Indeed, please do the etymology homework.
Why in the cases of mellite, hyalite, and tantalite do you ignore the presence of l in the stem (double ll in the case of mellite)? You did not do so in the case of bernalite.
I don't think the forum discussion thread from the Mineralogy Database derives any authority from its presence on that website. I see no evidence of linguistic expertise in that thread. Similarly for Gem Select. The Canadian Encyclopedia supports my view. I'd be more impressed by such a statement from the Mineralogical Association's Commission on New Minerals, Nomenclature and Classification. DCDuring TALK 22:03, 19 August 2016 (UTC)
According to the OED, -ite is usually from -ιτης or -ιτις, but -lite as an independent suffix is from λιθος. My lists concerned only -lite suffixed minerals, not -ite suffixed minerals. However, I further concede that at least a large plurality of the items in my -lite lists derive from -l stems, and are in fact -ite suffixed; hence they must at a minimum be filtered manually. The OED helpfully points out two things: true -lite suffixed words were often deliberately -olite suffixed after the Greek pattern, collected here: User:OrphicBot/Sandbox/olite terminated words - some not minerals, and also that the /theta/ became /t/ because a great many of these derivations are via French, being a mostly older pattern than the -ite derivation. Isomorphyc (talk) 23:21, 19 August 2016 (UTC)
For mellite I used the Greek word, which would have either indicated the -lite suffix or gemination. I suppose the rest were mistakes. I spent some time researching and I think I see where I went wrong. Nomenclature itself, apart from chemical prefixes and suffixes, are largely up to the author/discoverer of the new species of mineral, and there's no naming convention on that other than what's popular, so it wouldn't be up to the IMA or CNMNC. So they're not related.
In any case, there are still a lot of mineral names, especially those named after places and people, that have a definite -lite suffix where there is no "L" in the stem. Those lists created by Isomorphyc are still good to use. Can I take my foot out of my mouth? EI at10s (talk) 23:42, 19 August 2016 (UTC)
Speaking personally, if the /l/ is truly unexpected, I would say the -lite pattern is more likely being followed than -ite, whether deliberately or not. Without evidence, I would preface it with something like `probably.' Whether you were initially more partly right or not, there is a lot of confusion in these entries which would be a worthwhile project to clarify. Isomorphyc (talk) 00:28, 20 August 2016 (UTC)
It is usually better to look for a Latin etymon, eg, mel, stem mell before resorting to a Greek one. The stem of μελι ‎(meli, honey) is μελιτ ‎(melit), which would yield melitite (with -ite) or melitolite (with -lite).
More importantly, thanks for your contributions to the mineralogy terms, which entries are sometimes a bit bare. Etymology, External links (to pages in WP and in high-quality sites like Mineralogy Database), and images (from Wikicommons) would definitely improve them. DCDuring TALK 02:18, 20 August 2016 (UTC)
BTW, though it is rare, some English technical words are derived from other languages, eg, French, German, Tupi, or irregularly from Latin or Greek (deviating from the patterns above). Just give regular derivation from Latin first shot. DCDuring TALK 02:23, 20 August 2016 (UTC)
For minerals I wouldn't say it is rare. It is very common for a mineral to be first published in German or French and soon after appear in English. DTLHS (talk) 02:27, 20 August 2016 (UTC)
What is rare is for a reference work to credit the intermediate language (French, German, Russian etc.) rather than the classical language from which the authors derived the terms. I have mostly seen credit given to the intermediate language when the intermediate language has left a distinct mark on the term. For example, sometimes German changes a Latin (hard) C to a K. DCDuring TALK 03:16, 20 August 2016 (UTC)

put together[edit]

One sense had been tagged RFV, but I was familiar with it, so I cited and tweaked it, but now I'm not sure it's actually an adjective as opposed to a verb form... - -sche (discuss) 23:33, 19 August 2016 (UTC)

It's a verb form (a past participle), but in function it is an adverb and not an adjective in the sentence you're talking about ("all in all, as a whole").
An adverb? Really?? 17:23, 22 August 2016 (UTC)

something is baked into the cake[edit]

Is this a common idiom? And if so, what does it mean? I heard it used twice by the same news reporter. It seemed to mean something like “the situation is messed up” or “the damage has been done”. I may have misinterpreted it, though. (I thought maybe like a ring that's got into the dough and can't be removed anymore.) Kolmiel (talk) 00:32, 20 August 2016 (UTC)

It's not a particularly common idiom ("baked into the cake" gets only two pages of Google Books hits, and many are literal), but it exists. In general, I think it means that something is interwoven into something else to such an extent that it cannot be removed except perhaps with great effort or disruption. Hence I can find:
  • 2012, Robert J. Lieber, Power and Willpower in the American Future:
    We should be skeptical about pessimistic predictions concerning the American future and any notion that decline is already "baked into the cake."
However, there also seems to be a meaning in finance, of "(already) incorporated by the market into the price of a stock, or into the state of the market". There, I see other references give examples like a company or the US Federal Reserve foreshadowing its earnings or policy changes (respectively) so that markets "bake them into the cake" instead of being shocked by them (and having to, I guess the metaphor would be, abruptly and disruptively inject them into the cake).
- -sche (discuss) 00:58, 20 August 2016 (UTC)
Even if the phrase is used metaphorically, which I can well believe, I'm not sure that such metaphorical usages necessarily deserve inclusion in the dictionary. Isn't there a virtually unlimited possibility for creating them? 01:39, 20 August 2016 (UTC)
There is no end to the metaphors and terms that could exist, but as only a finite number do, there is nothing wrong with including them when there is no limit to the number of entries we can have. Andrew Sheedy (talk) 02:23, 20 August 2016 (UTC)
There is "nothing wrong" with including various entries that I have proposed over the years, "princely sum" (above) being the latest. Judging by the almost total lack of support for most of these, I think "nothing wrong" is probably not enough. 02:58, 20 August 2016 (UTC)
Princly sum is borderline SOP, however, so I can see why it wouldn't have strong support. I would only hesitantly support its inclusion separate from princely (where "princely sum" is given as a usage example). Baked into the cake is clearly not SOP, on the other hand, so if it is citable, it is worth including separately. That being said, I would like to see a section for collocations, where something like princely sum could be included. Andrew Sheedy (talk) 03:08, 20 August 2016 (UTC)
Then how about "taken by the reins" (metaphorical), or "put back in the box" (metaphorical) or "eaten for lunch" (metaphorical), to give three straight off the top of my head at random, all of which are not literally SOP and are easily attestable in the non-literal meaning? As I say, I think there is an unlimited supply of these phrases. I don't see where it would end. 02:53, 21 August 2016 (UTC)
If they are attestable, then all of them should be included. There is space for thousands of entries on Wiktionary, so as long as someone is willing to add them, there is no reason why they should not be included, provided they are citable (with a consistent meaning and are fixed phrases). Andrew Sheedy (talk) 03:45, 21 August 2016 (UTC)
Attestation needs to be accompanied by demonstration that the figurative meanings of the component terms doesn't help users get the meaning of the collocation.
Taken by the reins/take by the reins is an SoP common collocation using rein ("An instrument or means of curbing, restraining, or governing").
eat for lunch is IMO an SoP common collocation using eat ("To destroy, consume, or use up").
put back in the box might also be common SoP collocation using box ("a restrictive situation"), but it could also use an allusion to Pandora's box or use of box in the sense of the box in which something arrived/was obtained. Even so, put is not the only verb used with back in the box with this type of meaning.
Baked into the cake seems like a fairly pure metaphor. I don't know whether cake is where the metaphor truly resides.
BTW, "If I'd known you were coming, I'd have baked a cake" is a common expression used to express positive (or sarcastic) surprise at someone being present or arriving. I'd have baked a cake might be an idiom, since it can be used with many conditional clauses. DCDuring TALK 12:03, 21 August 2016 (UTC)
Agreed. I wasn't sure if the first two had any meaning beyond what I gathered without context, but I'm not challenging the idea that idiomaticity is a prerequisite for an entry. Andrew Sheedy (talk) 15:52, 21 August 2016 (UTC)
Is it just a flowery version of baked-in? Equinox 09:42, 20 August 2016 (UTC)
Flowery or floury? DCDuring TALK 12:03, 21 August 2016 (UTC)
I think it's related but it doesn't seem to mean quite the same thing. If our idiom gets to the needed number of cites, I would be for inclusion. -- At any rate: thanks for the help! Kolmiel (talk) 15:27, 20 August 2016 (UTC)
Set in concrete and the similar set in stone are two other idioms that often mean the same thing as baked into the cake. Unless I've missed some nuance of any of them! ;-) yoyo (talk) 13:00, 22 August 2016 (UTC)

Watch [22], 1:53 to 2:13. This is actually the context in which I first heard it (Donald Trump's image among the populace being incorrigible). The gentleman says "it's a great metaphor, we use it all the time". Might it be a trending phrase in this context? (Because User:-sche said above that it's indeed a rare expression.) Kolmiel (talk) 01:10, 23 August 2016 (UTC)


"Healing power or quality." What's an example of this sense? DTLHS (talk) 21:31, 21 August 2016 (UTC)

google books:"shopping is my therapy", google books:"music is my therapy". Therapy doesn't always refer to actual medical treatment (or medical-style treatment like massages). There are to be something to cover this. Not sure "Healing power or quality" is good enough though. Renard Migrant (talk) 19:52, 22 August 2016 (UTC)

Pronunciation of "accueil"[edit]

It feels like the pronunciation of "accueil" in https://en.wiktionary.org/wiki/accueil is not accurate when compared to http://forvo.com/word/accueil/ and https://www.bing.com/translator

I don't speak French, which one is right?

I do speak French, and the English Wiktionary pronunciation of un accueil (a welcome) sounds spot on to me! It includes the "liaison" that connects the final N of uN to the beginning of the first syllable AC-, making it sound more like u NACcueil. Please remember that languages often have markedly varying pronunciations (especially for vowels) in different places and times, and that languages are always evolving. French vowels, in particular, seem to have changed quite radically across the last two or three generations (for example, oui that I learnt sounding like "wii" is now often heard as "weh"). So all three sources you mention may represent current speech. yoyo (talk) 12:40, 22 August 2016 (UTC)
I've just checked the TLFi - digitised treasury of the French language) - with the phonetic pronunciation key A-K-E-I and it successfully finds accueil. So there's an authority for my claim that the pronunciation on English Wiktionary is good; it's not just me saying so. yoyo (talk) 14:05, 22 August 2016 (UTC)
There's nothing wrong with Wiktionary's pronunciation, which sounds pretty typical. It doesn't even sound significantly different from the pronunciations on Forvo. Andrew Sheedy (talk) 14:22, 22 August 2016 (UTC)
Perhaps the OP was thrown off by the presence of un in the recording. If so, he isn't the first and won't be the last to speak up about it. It can be disconcerting, especially for people with little or no French, to see accueil and hear un accueil. —Aɴɢʀ (talk) 19:01, 22 August 2016 (UTC)
As for oui sounding like "weh", isn't ouais considered a different word, just as yeah is a different word from yes? —Aɴɢʀ (talk) 19:06, 22 August 2016 (UTC)
When the audio includes to, un, zu, etc while the headword does not, don't we normally (or ideally) notate that like this? - -sche (discuss) 19:35, 22 August 2016 (UTC)
I certainly do when I come across it, but I can't manually do all the French nouns I'm afraid. And it would be very difficult to automate because any audio files that don't include the article will suddenly have one in the transcription. Renard Migrant (talk) 19:38, 22 August 2016 (UTC)


How useful are these definitions?:

"Along the direction of a plumb line or along a straight line that includes the center of the Earth."

Many young readers will never have seen or used a plumb line, and very few have ever seen the center of the Earth! ;-) Would a definition along the lines of "straight up and down" perhaps be more accessible? yoyo (talk) 12:17, 22 August 2016 (UTC)

Thanks for noticing. We should probably add a sense that is worded from the point of view of a normal human being rather than from the point of view of the universe as a whole or of a physicist. Both definitions have value, the current one at least adding a note of levity. DCDuring TALK 12:48, 22 August 2016 (UTC)
I thought it would be too much like a physicist to include mention of gravity ... and your note reminded me that years ago I proposed that if we ever do discover anti-gravity, it would be much simpler to call it by gravity's customary antonym, viz. levity! ;-) yoyo (talk) 13:35, 22 August 2016 (UTC)
An extra point: a vertical line does not, in general, go through the center of the Earth! Earth is not a sphere but is flattened at the poles. A more accurate definition is along the lines of force of gravity, i.e. the direction something falls when you let it go. The plumb line is basically one way to measure that. —CodeCat 14:26, 22 August 2016 (UTC)
True, and things can also be vertical on the moon. I've changed the definition a bit, but there's still room for improvement. - -sche (discuss) 16:57, 22 August 2016 (UTC)
I'd be tempted to write 'the direction due to the net effect of gravity' but I fear that's too technical to be useful. Oh and mountains are massive enough to divert the path of a falling object away from the centre of the earth. Renard Migrant (talk) 19:41, 22 August 2016 (UTC)
For a simpler definition, what about "the direction in which things fall"? 00:15, 23 August 2016 (UTC)
One problem with all of these definitions is that they are "down". I think that almost all use of vertical is associated with "up". DCDuring TALK 02:09, 23 August 2016 (UTC)
From a relativistic perspective, it's more about orientation with respect to ones frame of reference: one can be weightless in space and still have a concept of vertical and horizontal. Basically vertical is oriented along the up/down axis, and horizontal is oriented along the left-right and/or front-back axes. It doesn't matter whether it's gravitational, or from visual cues such as floors and walls- if there's an "up" and a "down", you know what direction "vertical" refers to. Chuck Entz (talk) 03:18, 23 August 2016 (UTC)

"thank you" variations[edit]

User:Philmonte101 recently created thank yu so much, thank ya so much, thank u so much, thank ye so much, thank ye very much, thank ya very much, thank yu very much, thank yu so very much, thank ya so very much, thank u so very much, thank ye so very much, thank u very much, thank yu, thank u, thank ya, thank ye. These were evidently created by taking an existing entry and modifying one of the words, rather than by encountering attestable terms. They may or may not be attestable. I think these entries are silly and should be deleted, but I am reminded of Talk:fish 'n' chips. Thoughts please. Equinox 17:02, 22 August 2016 (UTC)

Get rid of all of them. All that is needed is an entry for "u", "ya" etc. saying that these can be nonstandard spellings of "you". 17:18, 22 August 2016 (UTC)
@User:Equinox But I literally searched each one of these in Books, Groups, and News to verify them. These terms are all attested and if you want to challenge them, challenge each one individually. The fact is that they aren't SOP, because if thank you is not SOP, therefore thank u is certainly also not SOP, therefore it technically belongs here if it is attested by CFI. So there are no good grounds to this. The worst that would happen to these is a redirect. Philmonte101 (talk) 03:05, 23 August 2016 (UTC)
"you" can probably be attested as "u" in almost every single phrase involving the word "you". It is completely unnecessary to list all these separately. 04:05, 23 August 2016 (UTC)
Redirect them all. Having the entries is one thing, but listing them in other entries is incredibly lame: the reader is presented with a long, boring list of trivial variations, none of which has content worth the click to get there. What's more, everything after thank you/thanks is SOP (with a few exceptions), so even some of the previosly-existing variations should be deleted. Chuck Entz (talk) 07:33, 23 August 2016 (UTC)


Sense 3: "Acceptable, appropriate."

This is usually in the negative, in expressions like "That's not on!". "not on" is given as an example, but so are "right on" and "bang on". I question whether "on" in "right on" and "bang on" is the same sense of "on" at all, but before I delete these perhaps someone else can offer an opinion. 17:21, 22 August 2016 (UTC)

Very well then, since there has been no comment I will delete them. 19:14, 28 August 2016 (UTC)


Sense three of the Spanish adjective is "rascal". Is this actually a misplaced noun sense, or is it simply a poor translation of one of the adjectival meanings? Andrew Sheedy (talk) 18:43, 22 August 2016 (UTC)

The Spanish Wiktionary has sense three as «Dicho de una persona, de gusto vulgar o inferior, y hábitos incultos.» (said of a person, of vulgar or inferior taste, and uncultured habits). Maybe this is what rascal sense 3 in the English roto is meant to explain.
MGorrone (talk) 15:09, 23 August 2016 (UTC)
Thanks! I'll try to think of a good translation of that. Andrew Sheedy (talk) 20:06, 23 August 2016 (UTC)
If it's anything like French, nouns and adjectives that describe people tend to overlap a lot, like menteur#French which is either liar or lying depending on usage, or adjectives like nouveau#French which gets used as nouns (« c'est un nouveau »). Note how the TLFi defines menteur as « (Personne) qui ment » defining both the noun and the adjective in the same sentence. Renard Migrant (talk)

I seen it[edit]

See the usage note (and edit history) of see. "Many people use seen as the past tense." Can we clarify that any? I know AAVE sometimes uses seen that way; who else? How acceptable is the usage; is it nonstandard? Ngrams suggest it's about 1/30th ([23]) to 1/60th as common as "saw". - -sche (discuss) 19:31, 22 August 2016 (UTC)

Incorrect by any standard. By the way, wouldn't your graphs pick up "Have I seen it?", "Where have I seen it?" etc.? 19:43, 22 August 2016 (UTC)
Good point re "have I seen it". OTOH, "and I seen it" is still about 1/30th as common (or is that picking up something else with "have" that I'm not thinking of?). - -sche (discuss) 19:58, 22 August 2016 (UTC)
I hear "I seen" fairly often in Alberta, but it is nonetheless far from the standard here. Andrew Sheedy (talk) 20:13, 22 August 2016 (UTC)
Wouldn't it be more correct to say that people drop the [v] in rapid/casual speech with this word/coronal fricatives? Korn [kʰũːɘ̃n] (talk) 20:40, 22 August 2016 (UTC)
Try it with he and she, then. Renard Migrant (talk) 21:16, 22 August 2016 (UTC)
And he seen it is about three times less common than "and I seen it", and about 1/90th as common as "and he saw it". It's uncommon and nonstandard, but apparently not rare. - -sche (discuss) 21:22, 22 August 2016 (UTC)
Off topic but related, I hear "seen't it" more often as well Leasnam (talk) 21:26, 22 August 2016 (UTC)
I haven't noticed the [v] dropped with other verbs, aside from cases where it was more likely an example of confusing an irregular past tense with an irregular past participle (e.g. "I drunk" for "I drank"). I've never heard something like "I run" or "I eaten" in the past tense. Andrew Sheedy (talk) 22:08, 22 August 2016 (UTC)
A parallel can be found in done for did (who done it?). Can't think of another off the top of my head Leasnam (talk) 22:38, 22 August 2016 (UTC)
"come" is another example in some dialects: "An' then 'e come in and 'e sez to me ...". Possibly also "drunk", "sung", "swum" and "sunk", though some of these are perhaps more mix-ups or plain errors than dialect or nonstandard forms. 23:14, 22 August 2016 (UTC)
Your example seems more like use of the present tense. "And then he comes in and he says to me" is perfectly okay for telling a story in informal conversation even in standard English. Chuck Entz (talk) 03:07, 23 August 2016 (UTC)
That is just a unfortunate interpretation of the example. The point is that "he come" is used for "he came". 03:55, 23 August 2016 (UTC)
It's common in Appalachia to use come for came. I think it actually comes from a clipping of had come > (had) come Leasnam (talk) 14:00, 23 August 2016 (UTC)
I think it's part of a larger trend across English to conflate the forms. After all, in the vast majority of verbs, the two are already identical. I suspect that it may be an indication of the evolution of future English: the total or near-total loss of a distinction between past and past participle. —CodeCat 14:06, 23 August 2016 (UTC)
I remember hearing it from other kids back in the early sixties. I think it's associated with poor education and/or rural speech. It's very much proscribed, so people who think of themselves as educated would consider it nonstandard. Chuck Entz (talk) 03:07, 23 August 2016 (UTC)


Is this really current in American texts? I would not expect a modern work to use this spelling. DTLHS (talk) 01:28, 23 August 2016 (UTC)

No, the "-ize" form was neck-and-neck in the early 1700s but has been rare ever since: about 1/200th as common as "surprise", or only slightly more common than the misspelling "suprise" (with no first 'r'). And it's that "common" (relative to "suprise") in both American and British books, so instead of labelling it "US" I would label it "chiefly obsolete" or "now rare and nonstandard" or the like. (Some people do pronounce it with a distinct 'z', though.) - -sche (discuss) 02:07, 23 August 2016 (UTC)
Dammit! Renard Migrant (talk) 22:39, 23 August 2016 (UTC)
Does it count if my sound was turned off and I didn't hear it? --WikiTiki89 11:42, 29 August 2016 (UTC)

marry off[edit]

Does marrying someone off have to be forcing them into marriage? That is what our definition currently says, but I'm convinced this is always the case. ---> Tooironic (talk) 10:35, 23 August 2016 (UTC)

I believe you may mean "I'm not convinced this is always the case", in which case I agree with you. In fact it is perhaps even usually not the case. 11:07, 23 August 2016 (UTC)
The "forcing" is not essential.
Yet another reason why we need citations when contributors are not advanced speakers.
I agree that the definition is wrong. I think the basic function of off is to allow one to have a sense of marry that has person A causing/influencing person B to marry person C, possibly enjoying a benefit therefrom (ie, prospect of grandchildren, relief from responsibility for support, etc). I'm not sure that marry alone is used in this way very often. An alternative, less commonly used, get (someone) married. One could also say get (someone) married off. DCDuring TALK 11:12, 23 August 2016 (UTC)
Thanks guys, I've made some changes now. ---> Tooironic (talk) 07:35, 26 August 2016 (UTC)

Torch candle?[edit]

I cannot find the English equivalent for the Finnish word soihtukynttilä ‎(lit.transl. torch candle), see entry for photo and definition. Another photo here: [24]. --Hekaheka (talk) 13:30, 23 August 2016 (UTC)

  • It's a tealight - see Tealight on Wikipedia. SemperBlotto (talk) 13:38, 23 August 2016 (UTC)
    I'd also call it a votive candle, though to judge from the pics at Google Images, votive candles are somewhat taller than tealights. In everyday use, though, I don't think I'd bother with that distinction. —Aɴɢʀ (talk) 19:06, 23 August 2016 (UTC)
A tealight warming a teapot

Thank you for your suggestions, but neither is exactly what I'm looking for. I understand that "tea light" (tuikku in Finnish) is similar in design but small enough, about 4 cm in diameter, to be used for keeping a teapot warm, hence the name. They cannot normally be used outdoors because even the slightest wind blows them out. Also votive candles seem to be made for indoor use. A soihtukynttilä is specifically made for outdoor use and has a diameter of 10 to 20 cm and a thick wick in order to withstand wind. The package warns against using them indoors. They are called marschall in Swedish but that didn't help to find the English term. The Swedish retailer Tingstad uses the term "pitch torch" on their webpage [25] (click the little pic under the product photo in order to get a picture of the package), but I'm not sure whether that is a generally accepted term. A google pic search for "pitch torch" returns the Tingstad photos but also lots of pictures of torches made with pitch as the burning substance. Another reason for being doubtful is that the "Finnish" text on the package only resembles Finnish. --Hekaheka (talk) 04:52, 24 August 2016 (UTC)

ζωή vs. βίος: differences? Usage notes to be added to relevant articles?[edit]

Title says it all. I was prompted to ask this by a question from the Greek Stack Exchange proposal (http://area51.stackexchange.com/proposals/101509/greek-language/101561#101561) which explicitly states there is no explanation over here. I checked, and indeed, no explanations. So what is the difference between ζωή and βίος, which both translate to "life" and have given rise to suffixes (bio- and zoo-) referring to life? And should we add usage notes to the relevant articles explaining the differences? And did the difference change since Ancient Greek or is it still the same in Modern Greek?

MGorrone (talk) 14:53, 23 August 2016 (UTC)

The more fundamental problem is that both words have several definitions according to the best Ancient Greek dictionaries, links to which are in the reference sections. We have only one or two. DCDuring TALK 21:03, 23 August 2016 (UTC)


This is a Latin script letter, so you wouldn't expect there to be a Greek or Russian entry for it in first instance. However, these languages certainly have names for this letter; it's not like the letter H just doesn't exist to Russian or Greek speakers. This information is currently missing from Wiktionary altogether. In the same vein, Latin-script languages can have names for Russian and certainly for Greek letters, and this information is also found nowhere. —CodeCat 20:37, 23 August 2016 (UTC)

We do have эйч (linked-to from aitch); we also have алиф, and in the other direction alpha and yus. If some languages' names for letters don't have entries yet, I presume it's because no-one has added them. We could put {{trans-see}}s at H#English pointing to aitch#English, or perhaps move the translations. - -sche (discuss) 21:28, 23 August 2016 (UTC)
For English, we put the pronunciation of H at the entry H. Should we not be doing the same for other languages? —CodeCat 21:38, 23 August 2016 (UTC)
Definitely, particularly because the pronunciation cannot be readily deduced from the single letter, unlike with a full word. Andrew Sheedy (talk) 22:04, 23 August 2016 (UTC)
'ard to say. For many numbers (e.g. 3), we don't seem to include pronunciations in any languages (although we do include an English section for 1, probably because it has other uses/senses). Russian Wikipedia suggests Russian has different names for English H (эйч), German H (ха), etc, in addition to the "classical Russian name of the letter" (аш). It seems like the easiest way to handle that would be to have translations tables at, or linked to from, H#English and H#German etc. Whether it would be better to have a translation table at H#Translingual to house аш and give pronunciation at аш, or to have H#Russian to mention аш and its pronunciation, or to have neither (like we do for numbers), I'm not sure. I suppose we should recognize that even if we only have sections at H for Latin-script languages that use that letter, the page will still contain thousands of sections when it's complete, so adding sections for Russian, Chinese, etc wouldn't add that much in the long run... and it would be useful to have a page that provided the letter's name in each language... - -sche (discuss) 22:18, 23 August 2016 (UTC)
I basically agree with -sche, but I don't think we need to have a Russian entry at H itself, the individual names like аш are enough (by the way, the Russian Wikipedia is not trying to say that these are Russian words for German H and English H, but that these are the German and English words for H, transliterated to Russian; some of these names are used occasionally in Russian, but not necessarily limited in meaning to a particular language's letter). --WikiTiki89 11:52, 29 August 2016 (UTC)


Does anyone want to take a stab at condensing my definitions into single English terms if they exist? It would be greatly appreciated! Definition three would also benefit from a word describing a thing that is a source of trouble, though the example phrase partly covers that. Andrew Sheedy (talk) 22:04, 23 August 2016 (UTC)

I think they're fine the way they are. Leasnam (talk) 01:32, 24 August 2016 (UTC)

paître conjugation chart[edit]

For the automatically generated conjugation chart for the French verb paître it gives the third person single present indicative form as "pait" instead of the correct "paît", how do I change this so that it includes the circumflex? 2WR1 (talk) 08:04, 24 August 2016 (UTC)

Unfortunately Module:fr-verb doesn't have any documentation so if you don't know how to fix it (and I don't) you can't learn how to fix it from the documentation. I've had to remove conjugation table from a different verb for the same reason. I think @Benwing2 might be one of the people who knows how it works. Renard Migrant (talk) 12:04, 24 August 2016 (UTC)
@Renard Migrant: thank you! I have no idea how to fix it, the same problem is in repaître. 2WR1 (talk) 21:10, 24 August 2016 (UTC)
Is the conjugation similar to croître? If so, I expect the module can be fixed by someone like CodeCat. SemperBlotto (talk) 06:40, 25 August 2016 (UTC)
@SemperBlotto: No, they're like connaître, the only problem is that the third person singular indicative needs a circumflex on the i and the chart does not reflect that. I don't get how these auto chart even work, even highly irregular verbs, when I look at the wikicode, they're just written with "fr-conj-auto". I don't understand how that works for all these verbs. It has the correct placement of the circumflex for connaître and naître. 2WR1 (talk) 08:07, 26 August 2016 (UTC)
Lots of special cases, including for paître, are hardcoded into Module:fr-verb. 09:45, 26 August 2016 (UTC)
Well, it doesn't show up correctly for paître, so... 2WR1 (talk) 07:47, 27 August 2016 (UTC)
It's not hard-coded correctly, obviously. Renard Migrant (talk) 13:52, 27 August 2016 (UTC)
I think the way it works at the moment is a but shitty, TBH. I don't agree with hard-coding these things in a cryptic way in a module that very few people will understand how to edit. There should be a more accessible interface. 00:19, 28 August 2016 (UTC)
Ya, exactly, I've only ever seen one conjugation chart created without doing "fr-conj-auto" and the wikicode used was very confusing, and also because all the other verbs that are conjugated like paître are all done with "fr-conj-auto" so I can't even look at the way they're coded and try to copy it. It's all very frustrating. 2WR1 (talk) 01:36, 28 August 2016 (UTC)
Hi. Somehow I completely missed your ping (it did show up). I will take a look at the module. I didn't write it but I can often figure this stuff out. @Kc kennylau, Hillcrest98 Can you also take a look? Benwing2 (talk) 02:19, 28 August 2016 (UTC)
OK, fixed. However, the conjugation also claims that there are no compound tenses, whereas the French Wiktionary claims they do exist (with participle pu). Which one is correct? Benwing2 (talk) 02:28, 28 August 2016 (UTC)
BTW I agree that the module should not be designed in such a way as to require that it be edited in order to change the conjugation of a verb. A better way, for example, is the way I designed Module:fro-verb. The module only directly conjugates regular verbs, but allows for specifying irregular principal parts of individual tenses as well as directly indicating the forms of an entire tense, including alternatives (which were legion in Old French) or overriding an individual form (e.g. 3sg present for paître). (And it's all documented.) See the definition of Template:fro-conj-conoistre for a typical example, or Template:fro-conj-aler for a particularly complex example. (Note also that this was the first module I wrote and could potentially be done better in certain ways.) Benwing2 (talk) 02:37, 28 August 2016 (UTC)
@Benwing2: Thanks so much for fixing that! I never could have figured that out myself! Really appreciate it! 2WR1 (talk) 03:18, 28 August 2016 (UTC)


Admittedly a minor one but "Strictly correct usage is to reserve electrocute and electrocution for fatal electric shocks" is dictating a standard onto our readers, which clashes with our principles of describing not prescribing. And yet I do feel like we need to mention the issue. Reading a few other dictionaries might be a good place to start. Renard Migrant (talk) 14:04, 24 August 2016 (UTC)

I changed "Strictly correct" to "Standard". Do you think that's good enough, or is "standard" still too subjective? It should definitely be mentioned, however, as many would view the informal usage as altogether incorrect. Andrew Sheedy (talk) 14:22, 24 August 2016 (UTC)
Which people? Who gave them such an idea? DTLHS (talk) 00:48, 25 August 2016 (UTC)


Was the sense "a male virgin" still grammatically feminine, as is currently implied by the entry? Andrew Sheedy (talk) 14:42, 24 August 2016 (UTC)

I don't know, but it wouldn't surprise me. German Jungfrau is still grammatically feminine when applied to a male. —Aɴɢʀ (talk) 10:01, 25 August 2016 (UTC)

walk through[edit]

Is the first definition, "To explain someone something", grammatical? I thought one had to say "to explain something to someone". --Fsojic (talk) 22:43, 24 August 2016 (UTC)

Technically it ~is grammatical, but it is very, very old fashioned and like Equinox says below will sound very odd, yet it isn't incorrect. It's a usage-type error Leasnam (talk) 23:31, 24 August 2016 (UTC)
Does sound odd to me. I have changed it. Equinox 22:50, 24 August 2016 (UTC)

tardy bell[edit]

A bell or bell function that is often used in schools. More of a slang term, since kids associate those bells more with being tardy. Is this SOP? I know it's tardy + bell, but often that same bell can be used for other things than what is associated with "being late", right? For instance, the bell rings to go to your next class. I still don't know how to word this though in a definition. Do any of you? Philmonte101 (talk) 22:55, 24 August 2016 (UTC)

I have definitely used this term a lot in elementary school and even high school. It specifically describes the one bell in the bell schedule that designates tardiness. There would be a signal bell, indicating you had five minutes to get to class, and after that five minutes is the tardy bell; anyone not sitting down by that bell was tardy. Of note I guess that it isn't always a bell sound even though most people I believe call it a bell. EI at10s (talk) 17:12, 25 August 2016 (UTC)
I know it from junior high and high school (in elementary school we didn't go from class to class much). There was a bell (and in my day it was a bell sound) to indicate the end of a class period, a second bell to warn you that you needed to be in class very soon, and the third bell—the tardy bell—which meant you were tardy if you weren't in the classroom by the time it rang. I don't think it's SOP since the bell itself isn't tardy. If the term were "tardiness bell" it would be SOP, but I'd say "tardy bell" is idiomatic. Not slang, though. —Aɴɢʀ (talk) 09:18, 26 August 2016 (UTC)
By the way, what's the terminology to distinguish a tardy person from a tardy bell, or a living standard from a living creature? I was explicitly taught this and can't remember. Equinox 13:22, 26 August 2016 (UTC)
P.S. In Britain nobody uses the word "tardy" in the school or work context, only "late". I haven't heard of a "late bell" but it might exist. Equinox 13:22, 26 August 2016 (UTC)
In the U.S., I never heard it at the private school in New York State I attended through age 8. I heard it for the first time at the pubilc school in Texas I started attending at age 9. I think I had to ask my parents or the teacher what the word "tardy" meant, because I had never heard it before. I still associate it almost exclusively with school. —Aɴɢʀ (talk) 13:57, 26 August 2016 (UTC)
THey use "late bell" here in the US Leasnam (talk) 14:11, 26 August 2016 (UTC)
I've never heard the term tardy bell (or late bell, for that matter) in Canada. It was always simply called "the second bell" at the schools I've been to.... Andrew Sheedy (talk) 15:16, 26 August 2016 (UTC)
I would say it's SOP, though perhaps formed in an informal way. I'll add to the anecdotes: In my school, "tardy" was still the official word but had mostly fallen out of fashion in favor of "late". The "bell" was a generated tone rather than an actual bell; at one point they replaced it with music, but we still called it the "bell". --WikiTiki89 12:00, 29 August 2016 (UTC)


Other things drew my attention to this entry, and I found that it's a noun in English too. But I have no idea what it means; it may have multiple meanings. —CodeCat 17:24, 25 August 2016 (UTC)

If I've ever used this word as a noun (which honestly I may have), it was a purposeful misspelling of the word snuggler for endearment, replacing snuggle with snug as a verb, so literally it's just one who snugs. Example: "The retriever's size and fluffiness makes him a good snugger." I doubt this is the meaning it's meant to have, in place for anything more specialized. Maybe related to snigger? EI at10s (talk) 17:30, 25 August 2016 (UTC)
Kiwima has found (and cited!) four senses. Nice job. Equinox 15:18, 26 August 2016 (UTC)

black nationalism and white nationalism[edit]

I am considering creating those two entries. Should I? Are they SOP? Should I create them anyway? Purplebackpack89 20:34, 26 August 2016 (UTC)

I interpret them as SOP since the sense of "nationalism" which is used in them is also used 'by itself' (as bare "nationalism") when talking about "the nationalism of the Black Panther party", etc. It is also used in a large number of parallel constructions like "Asian American nationalism", "[separatist] Latino nationalism", "Chicano nationalism", etc, which can similarly be rephrased as the "nationalism of the Chicano movement", etc. [[nationalism]] may need to be expanded in order to cover that sense, though, i.e. it may not cover it yet. Consider also things like "African nationalism". As for "should I create them anyway?": well, our record of keeping-vs-deleting similar entries is mixed; we deleted Jewish supremacy but kept white supremacy and black supremacy... - -sche (discuss) 21:25, 26 August 2016 (UTC)

The personified POS game[edit]

Can't think of a better or worse place to put this. So, if you were a part of speech, which one do you feel like you'd be? And give a reason. You can use any POS that is used as a Wiktionary L3 only, such as noun, adjective, adverb, phrase, conjunction, etc. Personally, I can't think of any to describe myself. Philmonte101 (talk) 01:16, 27 August 2016 (UTC)

Haha, you're starting a game like this, and you aren't participating? I'd probably be a phrase, given my tendency towards verbosity.... Andrew Sheedy (talk) 03:32, 27 August 2016 (UTC)
I changed my mind. I think I'd probably be an adjective or an adverb. Since the adjective sort of "helps out" the noun and the adverb "helps out" the verb, I'd compare that to myself going out of my way to help other people when they need it. Philmonte101 (talk) 03:38, 27 August 2016 (UTC)
I'm a circumfix because I like to give hugs. —Aɴɢʀ (talk) 15:04, 27 August 2016 (UTC)
WT:EL#Part of speech gives a (voted and approved) list to choose from: punctuation mark, combining form, prepositional phrase, romanization, whatever.
I'm a conjunction, I like to connect ideas. --Daniel Carrero (talk) 15:22, 27 August 2016 (UTC)
I'm that emoji that looks like Munch's The Scream. Equinox 15:34, 27 August 2016 (UTC)
Punctuation mark. Basically useless when it comes to oral communication. --Droigheann (talk) 20:04, 27 August 2016 (UTC)

ester French conjugation[edit]

For the French verb ester under conjugation it says that this verb is not conjugated and is only ever used in the infinitive. However, on the French wiktionary it gives an entire conjugation chart showing it conjugated as a regular -er verb. 2WR1 (talk) 03:09, 28 August 2016 (UTC)

FWIW, the Academy says "no longer used except in the infinitive" ("N'est plus usité qu'à l'infinitif dans les expressions Ester en justice, ester en jugement.")[26] --Droigheann (talk) 03:24, 28 August 2016 (UTC)
@Droigheann: Hmm, I wonder why the French wiktionary has a conjugation chart for it then. 2WR1 (talk) 03:29, 28 August 2016 (UTC)
You could try looking for conjugated forms on Google Books. And even if the forms are obsolete the conjugation can still be shown. DTLHS (talk) 03:30, 28 August 2016 (UTC)
I'd imagine it was still conjugated in the 17th century so it was conjugated in modern French, just it isn't anymore. Renard Migrant (talk) 13:15, 28 August 2016 (UTC)

cest English pronunciation[edit]

I can't find a pronunciation for the English word cest in any online dictionary. Does anyone have any resources to find this with? 2WR1 (talk) 03:27, 28 August 2016 (UTC)

Probably like the first syllable of cestus? DTLHS (talk) 03:31, 28 August 2016 (UTC)
...which would mean /sɛst/. The old Century Dictionary confirms this, notating that cest and cestus are pronounced with the same initial sound (/sɛs/) as cesspool. - -sche (discuss) 04:48, 28 August 2016 (UTC)
@-sche: Thanks! And thanks for adding the pronunciation on the page as well! 2WR1 (talk) 04:59, 28 August 2016 (UTC)


According to the usage note, "earnt" is "entirely acceptable". Says who? And if it is "entirely acceptable" then why can I find it in no other dictionary? 19:13, 28 August 2016 (UTC)

I find 21,100 hits on GBooks, all verifiable as "earned" Leasnam (talk) 19:16, 28 August 2016 (UTC)
That is very likely one of Google's Large Random Numbers. Visibly verifiable results run out in the hundreds. Of course, I am not denying that this spelling is used. My doubt is that it can be described as "entirely acceptable" when (1) no other dictionary that I can find allows it, and (2) it is not hard to find contrary opinions (e.g. [27]). "Of disputed correctness" seems to me to be more reflective of the actual situation than "entirely acceptable". 19:25, 28 August 2016 (UTC)
It's in the OED, but marked as non-standard. Equinox 19:21, 28 August 2016 (UTC)
Quite. 19:25, 28 August 2016 (UTC)


Could a Japanese editor check this entry? In Chinese 儒家 almost always means Confucianism and not Confucian (a person who believes in Confucianism). Is this is the case in Japanese as well? ---> Tooironic (talk) 03:03, 29 August 2016 (UTC)


"Although this option was shorter and better suited to through traffic, it did not satisfactorily serve the needs of Millau and its area". Is that a verb? --Fsojic (talk) 14:57, 29 August 2016 (UTC)

No. "through traffic" means traffic going through a street (as opposed to going to or from somewhere on the street). --WikiTiki89 15:01, 29 August 2016 (UTC)
I think it is our first sense of through#Adjective. DCDuring TALK 16:57, 29 August 2016 (UTC)